Was Jesus Irreligiously Logical?

[Toms777]

Water is not even mentioned here - the washing refers to the baptism of the Holy Spirit, the one true baptism of which water baptism is symbolic.


That he might sanctify and cleanse it with the WASHING of WATER (childbirth??) by the word." (Eph.5:26)

Now I don't know whether you are confusing yourself by the lack of quoting or whether or you deliberately mis-representing me but in this case I was responding to Titus 3:4-7, not Eph 5:26

Now we are getting closer to the truth about the 'water' of John 3:5

Now we understand that the 'water' in these three passages of scripture, do not mean childbirth! Thank you!

Now I do believe that you are deliberately mis-representing since we are not even talking about John 3:5 in these other verses, nor do they relate to John 3:5, nor did I mention anything about them in that context. You have mixed up the responses to make it appear to be something that it isn't.

Let's try to discuss honestly. I am quite willing to discuss when you choose to respond to what I said and not a mis-representation of what I said.

 

[Stinker]

[/i][/size][/font]

Now I don't know whether you are confusing yourself by the lack of quoting or whether or you deliberately mis-representing me but in this case I was responding to Titus 3:4-7, not Eph 5:26



Now I do believe that you are deliberately mis-representing since we are not even talking about John 3:5 in these other verses, nor do they relate to John 3:5, nor did I mention anything about them in that context. You have mixed up the responses to make it appear to be something that it isn't.

Let's try to discuss honestly. I am quite willing to discuss when you choose to respond to what I said and not a mis-representation of what I said.

Eph.5:26, Titus 3:5, Jn.3:5, are all parallel passages.


"That He might sanctify and cleanse it with the WASHING of WATER by the Word," (Eph.5:26)
"Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to His mercy He saved us, by the WASHING of Regeneration, and renewing of the Holy Ghost;" (Titus 3:5)
"..Except a man be born of WATER and of the Spirit, he cannot enter the kingdom of God." (Jn.3:5)


The Holy Spirit used (and still uses) the word to 'renew' us and to teach us how to be 'born again' "Being born again, not of corruptible seed, but of incorruptible, by the word of God, which liveth and abideth forever." (1Pet.1:23)

 

[Toms777]

Eph.5:26, Titus 3:5, Jn.3:5, are all parallel passages.

Your opinion. If you are going to argue on that basis, you should make sure that either you have agreement on that point or establish that basis prior to moving forward and making an unsubstantiated assumption.

As was pointed out, Eph 5:26 is using an analogy of water compared to the word.

Titus 3:5 uses an analogy of water and the Holy Spirit.

John 3:5 uses an analogy of water to flesh.

So your assumption is not just unsusbtantiated but it does not align with scripture.

Just because the word "water" is used in each case, you cannot blindly assume that it is used in exactly the same way without verifying through the context.