This is a question that's been on my mind and I would appreciate some thoughts (as long as they are not rude).
Yesterday in church, the speaker giving the sermon had some literature beamed onto the screen for everyone to read out loud together. He had been invited to some kind of special occasion at a synagogue - I think to do with his paid job. He came away with a poem written by a 15th-century Spanish poet and translated by a senior Rabbi for use in the synagogue. This was what we were all to read out.
The wording of the text was very beautiful and similar to some of the Psalms - talking about how God is the creator, our maker, and watches over us, etc. I started saying the words but stopped about halfway through. The text was being read like a creed but I doubted that it had been originally composed by a Christian. Did it matter?
When I looked closely at the words, I noticed a sentence saying of God, "He is One". Well, that takes us back to the Shema in Deuteronomy 6:4, so what was the problem?
I realised that the words "He is One" may well have been originally included in this poem to refute the Christian notion of the Trinity. And now when they are recited in a synagogue, it may be to affirm the Judaistic belief that God is One in the sense that 'there is no Trinity and therefore Jesus cannot be God the Son'. These words were being brought into my church for all the Christians to speak out.
After the church service, I expressed this concern to the minister and he said that he would have a word with the speaker who delivered that sermon.
Was I right or wrong to be concerned? I feel sure that everyone in the church would have been thinking of the Trinitarian concept of "He is One" as they read those words. I'm certain that the speaker's heart was right too. Did it matter that we used those words? Would it be all right to use them again? What might the Bible have to say on this subject?
Yesterday in church, the speaker giving the sermon had some literature beamed onto the screen for everyone to read out loud together. He had been invited to some kind of special occasion at a synagogue - I think to do with his paid job. He came away with a poem written by a 15th-century Spanish poet and translated by a senior Rabbi for use in the synagogue. This was what we were all to read out.
The wording of the text was very beautiful and similar to some of the Psalms - talking about how God is the creator, our maker, and watches over us, etc. I started saying the words but stopped about halfway through. The text was being read like a creed but I doubted that it had been originally composed by a Christian. Did it matter?
When I looked closely at the words, I noticed a sentence saying of God, "He is One". Well, that takes us back to the Shema in Deuteronomy 6:4, so what was the problem?
I realised that the words "He is One" may well have been originally included in this poem to refute the Christian notion of the Trinity. And now when they are recited in a synagogue, it may be to affirm the Judaistic belief that God is One in the sense that 'there is no Trinity and therefore Jesus cannot be God the Son'. These words were being brought into my church for all the Christians to speak out.
After the church service, I expressed this concern to the minister and he said that he would have a word with the speaker who delivered that sermon.
Was I right or wrong to be concerned? I feel sure that everyone in the church would have been thinking of the Trinitarian concept of "He is One" as they read those words. I'm certain that the speaker's heart was right too. Did it matter that we used those words? Would it be all right to use them again? What might the Bible have to say on this subject?