Was It Possible Or Not To Keep the Law of Moses?

Erasmus7

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Hi,

Doing a study on grace and the fulfilment of the Law at present, and wonder if someone can assist: some texts definitely state that it is not humanly possible to perfectly keep the Law. Thus Paul in Romans 7:14-23, 9:31-32, Peter’s words in Acts 15:10, that the Law was a burden that the Israelites could not bear, etc.

However, other texts seem to indicate that keeping the Law was possible.

For instance, concerning the Law and the choice between obedience and disobedience proffered to the Israelites, Moses says (Deuteronomy 30:11), ‘Now what I am commanding you today is not too difficult for you or beyond your reach.’ Ie, they have no excuse for disobedience.

Also, in Philippians 3:6 Paul, in giving his credentials as an impeccable Pharisee, avers that he was, ‘as for righteousness based on the law, faultless.’

There is also the argument and thrust from Romans 7 to 8 that, as heeding of the Law is not possible, the solution is through the power of the Holy Spirit (thus 8:1-4). A related query might be, then, did the OT Israelites for over 1000 years go through the same sense of guilt, frustration, and inability to keep the Law as did Paul (cf. Romans 7), because of absence of the indwelling Spirit? This would seem unfair, but would be in line with Romans 7 theology of difficulty in keeping the Law. However, how would this square with Moses’ parting exhortation that the Law was ‘not difficult’ (Deut 30.11)?

A thought: might Paul's (and Peter's) comments perhaps have something to do with an attempt at perfectionism, which is attested in the Talmud among first century rabbis?

Would appreciate assistance.
 

A_Thinker

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A first thought toward rightly diving the passage in Deuteronomy ... is that ... perhaps it only referred to what Moses was commanding ... on that specific DAY.

Deuteronomy is, essentially, a series of addresses that Moses gave to the Hebrews in the wilderness ... to not forget God, His actions in the past on their behalf, His current blessings towards them, and His commandments to them. Moses knows that he is about to pass off of the scene ... and is exhorting the Hebrews ... to REMEMBER and HONOR their relationship with God.

His words here are not, necessarily, saying that it is not DIFFICULT ... for them to fully obey the WHOLE of the Law ...
 
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Tolworth John

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Rather than do an academic study, do a practical experiment.
See if you can keep the ten commandments in your daily life.
Can you while at work, love the Lord with A ll your heart, mind and spirit.
While doing this can you also love those you have as you love yourself.



The short answer is No you cannot. But do give it a try.
 
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Charlie24

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Short answer: NO, no one could keep the Law, if they could there would have been no need for Christ to die for our sins.

The Law was meant to show that man needed a Saviour. On his own the standards set by God could not be met.

That's why the sacrificial law was established in the law. It pointed to Christ as the Lamb of God. The only way that man could keep the law was through faith in the coming Christ.

Christ's death on the cross paid for mans sin. If we believe in and on that sacrifice, God no longer sees the sinful man, when He looks at you He sees a perfect righteous creation fit for His Kingdom, He sees Christ through your faith.

Sad to say, Israel to this day has failed to see Christ in their own law.
 
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Hi,

Doing a study on grace and the fulfilment of the Law at present, and wonder if someone can assist: some texts definitely state that it is not humanly possible to perfectly keep the Law. Thus Paul in Romans 7:14-23, 9:31-32, Peter’s words in Acts 15:10, that the Law was a burden that the Israelites could not bear, etc.

However, other texts seem to indicate that keeping the Law was possible.

For instance, concerning the Law and the choice between obedience and disobedience proffered to the Israelites, Moses says (Deuteronomy 30:11), ‘Now what I am commanding you today is not too difficult for you or beyond your reach.’ Ie, they have no excuse for disobedience.

Also, in Philippians 3:6 Paul, in giving his credentials as an impeccable Pharisee, avers that he was, ‘as for righteousness based on the law, faultless.’

There is also the argument and thrust from Romans 7 to 8 that, as heeding of the Law is not possible, the solution is through the power of the Holy Spirit (thus 8:1-4). A related query might be, then, did the OT Israelites for over 1000 years go through the same sense of guilt, frustration, and inability to keep the Law as did Paul (cf. Romans 7), because of absence of the indwelling Spirit? This would seem unfair, but would be in line with Romans 7 theology of difficulty in keeping the Law. However, how would this square with Moses’ parting exhortation that the Law was ‘not difficult’ (Deut 30.11)?

A thought: might Paul's (and Peter's) comments perhaps have something to do with an attempt at perfectionism, which is attested in the Talmud among first century rabbis?

Would appreciate assistance.

Acts 15:7-11 KJV
[7] And when there had been much disputing, Peter rose up, and said unto them, Men and brethren, ye know how that a good while ago God made choice among us, that the Gentiles by my mouth should hear the word of the gospel, and believe. [8] And God, which knoweth the hearts, bare them witness, giving them the Holy Ghost, even as he did unto us; [9] And put no difference between us and them, purifying their hearts by faith. [10] Now therefore why tempt ye God, to put a yoke upon the neck of the disciples, which neither our fathers nor we were able to bear? [11] But we believe that through the grace of the Lord Jesus Christ we shall be saved, even as they.
 
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CharismaticLady

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There is also the argument and thrust from Romans 7 to 8 that, as heeding of the Law is not possible, the solution is through the power of the Holy Spirit (thus 8:1-4). A related query might be, then, did the OT Israelites for over 1000 years go through the same sense of guilt, frustration, and inability to keep the Law as did Paul (cf. Romans 7), because of absence of the indwelling Spirit? This would seem unfair, but would be in line with Romans 7 theology of difficulty in keeping the Law. However, how would this square with Moses’ parting exhortation that the Law was ‘not difficult’ (Deut 30.11)?

Romans 3:
because in His forbearance God had passed over the sins that were previously committed, 26 to demonstrate at the present time His righteousness, that He might be just and the justifier of the one who has faith in Jesus.
 
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