Was the fruit an apple?
The Bible as we know it does not define the type of fruit, so no one can
know based on the Bible whether the fruit was an apple, or a fig, or a pear, or even what we would consider "fruit". Perhaps the best argument for the fruit being an apple is that, of the seven times I can see "apple" in the Bible, five times it is in the expression "apple of my/your/his eye".
- Deut. 32:10b: He shielded [Israel] and cared for them, guarding them as the apple of his eye. God guards His people like the apple of his eye.
- Psalm 17:8: Keep me as the apple of your eye; hide me in the shadow of your wings. The apple of God's eye is hidden in the shadow of His wings.
- Proverbs 7:2: Keep my commands and live, my teaching as the apple of your eye. The apple of your eye should not be disobedience (as in breaking God's command and eating the fruit of the tree of knowledge) but obedience.
- Sirach 17:17 (apocrypha for some of you): A man's goodness God cherishes like a signet ring, a man's virtue, like the apple of his eye. God cherishes a man's virtue like the apple of His eye. Was not the tree of knowledge held in particular regard by God, that He would make such a decree for them not to partake of its fruit?
- Zech. 2:12: For thus said the LORD of hosts (after he had already sent me) concerning the nations that have plundered you: Whoever touches you touches the apple of my eye. Whatever nations plunder Zion touch the apple of God's eye, and God in turn hands those nations over to their slaves to be plundered (Zech 2:13). See how God reacts to those who touch the apple of His eye?
So those could be arguments for the fruit of the tree being an apple. The phrase "apple of my eye" appears to have originated in the Old Testament. But someone could do a study of "fig" or "olive" and find in the Bible reasons for one of
them to be interpreted as the fruit. But it
really doesn't matter for your salvation.
Was the result of the fruit sex?
I don't believe the "fruit" or "result" was sexuality, since God says to Eve
"I will intensify the pangs of your childbearing" (Gen. 3:16) which means he will make childbearing
more painful. This gives me the impression that, had Adam and Eve not disobeyed, childbirth would have been a painless (or much less painful) experience. Also, we have no reason to believe that upon eating the fruit of the tree of knowledge of good and evil that Adam and Eve grew the organs of sexual reproduction. What I mean is, we have no reason to believe they weren't already equipped with the male and female sexual organs (testicles, sperm, ovaries, uterus, etc.) and that they would not have engaged in sex anyway.
Was Cain a son of Adam or not?
Please look harder at the geneology! The relevant portion of Gen. 5:1-4 reads thus:
This is the record of the descendants of Adam. [...] Adam was one hundred and thirty years old when he begot a son in his likeness, after his image; and he named him Seth. Adam lived eight hundred years after the birth of Seth, and he had other sons and daughters.
So why do you feel that, since Cain's name was left out, he wasn't Adam's son? The other ancestors of Noah (who is the target person of the genelogies in Gen. 5) are treated similarly. We are not told the sons named in this list are the
first-born sons, so don't assume it. All we know is that this is the lineage from Noah back to Adam. We know who Noah's father, grandfather, great-grandfather, etc. are, but we don't know the names of his brothers, uncles, great-uncles, etc. That doesn't mean he didn't have them, or that they were "of the devil", it means their names weren't listed in these 32 verses of this one book of the Bible.
Whose father is the devil?
In John 8:31-47, which contains the oft-quoted "the truth will set you free", Jesus says to a group of Jews who do not believe him:
"You belong to your father the devil and you willingly carry out your father's desires. He was a murderer from the beginning and does not stand in truth, because there is no truth in him. When he tells a lie, he speaks in character, because he is a liar and the father of lies." (John 8:44)
Compare this with the first letter of John:
Whoever sins belongs to the devil, because the devil has sinned from the beginning. Indeed, the Son of God was revealed to destroy the works of the devil. No one who is begotten by God commits sin, because God's seed remains in him; he cannot sin because he is begotten by God. In this way, the children of God and the children of the devil are made plain; no one who fails to act in righteousness belongs to God, nor anyone who does not love his brother. (1 John 3:8-10)
What the letter means is that, when sinning, we are doing the work of Satan -- Satan is our "father". Clearly, I was not born of Satan, I was born of my human mother and father. But when we act, we are doing the will of either God or Satan; whoever we choose (for we cannot serve
two masters) is our "father" in that sense. When we repent and do not sin, we are doing the will of our rightful father, God. So, in the gospel, Jesus is not denying that the Jews are Abraham's descendants -- he admits that explicitly in verse 37 (
"I know that you are descendants of Abraham.") -- but he is saying that they are not acting like children of Abraham:
They answered and said to him, "Our father is Abraham." Jesus said to them, "If you were Abraham's children, you would be doing the works of Abraham. But now you are trying to kill me, a man who has told you the truth that I heard from God; Abraham did not do this. You are doing the works of your father!" (John 8:39-41a)
They are not behaving like children of Abraham, let alone like children of God!
I'm here all evening...
Remember to tip your waiters. Who else wants an answer?