Even if all you say is true, it doesn't change the fact that "church" is not something used verbally as a noun, pronoun, or as a verb in Jerusalem by the locals before 70 AD .There is simply no good reason to deny the Greek authorship of the New Testament in General. One can make arguments for Hebrews or Matthew being in Aramaic but that's about it.
Be this as it may the only text we can rely upon is the Greek which distinguishes between the two and if are you suggesting the text cannot be trusted in this instance what else can't we trust about it? Are we to trust your reconstruction over the text we have?
Mind you, your premise is simply wrong that the New Testament was written by Jews to Jews in Jerusalem. Mark was likely written to a Roman Audience. Luke's gospel was likewise written to a Gentile audience and he himself was not Jewish. Paul's letters explicitly are towards Churches not in Jerusalem and it makes sense for them to be in Greek.
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