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Was baptism always by immersion?

tonychanyt

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The book of Didache was written in the first century AD. Didache:

And concerning baptism, baptize this way: Having first said all these things, baptize into the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit, in living water. But if you have no living water, baptize into other water; and if you cannot do so in cold water, do so in warm. But if you have neither, pour out water three times upon the head into the name of Father and Son and Holy Spirit.
Was baptism always by immersion?

No. Didache was being pragmatic, offering different modes of baptism. The preference was full immersion in a body of running water.

Strong's Greek: 907. βαπτίζω (baptizó) — 81 Occurrences

The primary meaning of G907 was to immerse, not sprinkle, but it could also mean to purify. BDAG:

In Gk. lit. gener. to put or go under water in a variety of senses, also fig., e.g. ‘soak’
① wash ceremonially for purpose of purification, wash, purify, of a broad range of repeated ritual washing rooted in Israelite tradition.
② to use water in a rite for purpose of renewing or establishing a relationship w. God, plunge, dip, wash, baptize. The transliteration ‘baptize’ signifies the ceremonial character that NT narratives accord such cleansing, but the need of qualifying statements or contextual coloring in the documents indicates that the term β. was not nearly so technical as the transliteration suggests.
③ to cause someone to have an extraordinary experience akin to an initiatory water-rite, to plunge, baptize.
 
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Yeshua HaDerekh

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The book of Didache was written in the first century AD. Didache:


Didache was being pragmatic, offering different modes of baptism.
IF it is based on the Mikveh, then full immersion was needed.
 
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Ain't Zwinglian

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Didache was being pragmatic, offering different modes of baptism.
The Didache is extra-Biblical material. Are you using the Didache to interpret the Apostolic Scriptures?
So much for "Sola Scriptura."
 
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tonychanyt

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tonychanyt

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So you do believe the Didache has authority of Scripture.
No. I weigh every piece of evidence inside and outside of Scripture. I put higher weight on the Scripture.

Tell me, does the Scripture contradict Didache in this passage?
 
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Ain't Zwinglian

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I put higher weight on the Scripture.
Placing higher weight on Scripture means to are placing some weight on non-biblical or extra-biblical sources. This tells me the Didache has some authority over Scripture.

I am done with this conversation.
 
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tonychanyt

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Placing higher weight on Scripture means to are placing some weight on non-biblical or extra-biblical sources. This tells me the Didache has some authority over Scripture.
Didache would have authority over Scripture if it can override it. In fact, I even put some weight on your remarks, according to you, you now have some authority over Scripture just because I put some weight on your remarks.

To me, Scripture overrides Didahe, not the other way around.
 
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