Hi Bible2,
Moses and Elijah could have appeared at the transfiguration (Matthew 17:3) by coming down from heaven. For Elijah never died, but was taken alive into heaven (2 Kings 2:11), and Michael the archangel retrieved the dead body of Moses from the devil (Jude 1:9, cf. Deuteronomy 34:6b); Michael could have then taken Moses' dead body into heaven, where it could have been resuscitated back to mortal life like the dead body of Lazarus was resuscitated back to mortal life (John 12:1). This would explain how both Moses and Elijah could appear alive and well at the transfiguration (Matthew 17:3).
Thank you for your thoughtful reply. From a reading of Jude 1:9 I do not get the impression that the body of Moses was in the possession of the Devil as you imply here -
"and Michael the archangel retrieved the dead body of Moses from the devil"
Jud 1:9 Yet Michael the archangel, when contending with the devil he disputed about the body of Moses, durst not bring against him a railing accusation, but said, The Lord rebuke thee.
It seems to me that there was simply a dispute between Michael and Satan over his dead body, implying that they each had intentions for the corpse, but neither had clear possession of it at the time of the argument. From your scenario I'm assuming that you believe that some time after God buried Moses secretly Michael and Satan contended over his dead body. Then the victor of the dispute, Michael, dug up the body from it's secret burial place at which time Moses was resurrected. Is this correct?
I understand that this is the traditional understanding of the events, but have you considered the possibility that the dispute between Michael and Satan occurs
before Moses is buried secretly? That Michael is sent to bury Moses secretly on behalf of God and Satan objects to this secret burial?
The only things we know as scriptural facts from comparing Jude 1:9 with Deuteronomy 34:6 are that Moses was buried secretly by God, and Michael and Satan had a dispute over his body. If the Lord sent Michael to bury Moses in the valley of Moab, and Satan tried to impede this task, then the two scriptures would fit together with the least amount of conjecture on our part IMO.
I realize that you are using Matt 17 to support this idea that Moses had indeed been resurrected at some point after his death. But I don't think you can be certain about this as the events of the transfiguration could have been a shared vision as I pointed out in my previous post. I tend to lean towards this scene being a vision, among other reasons because the apostles seemed to immediately recognize Elijah and Moses even though they'd really have no idea what they actually looked like in person. It seems to be the kind of knowledge that accompanies a vision IMO. Why didn't they immediately assume that the two figures speaking to Jesus were Angels, or David and Daniel, or two other characters?
Or, if the two figures speaking to Jesus were the actual Elijah and Moses as you seem to prefer, it could have been that their disembodied souls were brought up from Sheol for this occasion as the soul of Samuel was in 1Sa 28:13. Which seemed to have the appearance of "gods ascending from the earth" which would explain why they "appeared in glory" [Luk 9:3], but were still recognizable as their former, living selves.
Nothing requires that 2 Kings 13:14 was a vision, instead of just a statement by Joash. Also, it doesn't matter if the chariot that took Elijah up was spiritual; it was still real, and so it was able to really take Elijah up into heaven (2 Kings 2:11). Joash's statement in 2 Kings 13:14 could simply mean that Joash wanted God to send a chariot to take Elisha alive into heaven in the same manner that God sent a chariot to take Elijah alive into heaven (2 Kings 2:11).
I just find it very interesting that Joash would make the exact same statement upon Elisha's deathbead that Elisha had made upon seeing the Chariot of Fire. If it was a prayer as you suggest, it would seem to be a prayer for those about to die.
God also physically took Enoch alive into heaven, so that Enoch wouldn't see death (Hebrews 11:5).
I'm not aware of any scripture within the canon that says that Enoch was taken alive into heaven. Hebrews 11:5 which you cite simply says that Enoch was "translated that he should not see death; and was not found, because God had translated him". The term "translated" does not mean taken to heaven. The word has a variety of applications, but literally means to transport, move from one place to another place. So while this could mean that Enoch was transported from Earth to Heaven, it can also mean that he was transported from one place on Earth to another place on Earth. I think that you understand that Enoch was not "changed", that is changed from a mortal to an immortal, as some interpret "metatithemi" because Christ alone has experienced this type of translation so far [1Ti 6:16].
G3346
μετατίθημι
metatithēmi
met-at-ith'-ay-mee
From G3326 and G5087; to transfer, that is, (literally) transport, (by implication) exchange, (reflexively) change sides, or (figuratively) pervert: - carry over, change, remove, translate, turn.
I think that we are both in agreement that the proper application of "metatithemi" in 11:5 is to transport. But I think that him being moved to heaven is an assumption. The reason he was "translated" is given....."so he would not taste death". I completely understand why you believe that this means "so he would never die" from this verse alone. But when you bring 11:13 to bear, it must affect the understanding of this phrase IMO.
Heb 11:13 These all died in faith, not having received the promises, but having seen them afar off, and were persuaded of them, and embraced them, and confessed that they were strangers and pilgrims on the earth.
If Enoch was taken to heaven and is still alive at this very day in his natural body then He did not die as the writer of Hebrews says all these people of faith did. He did not only see the promises afar off, he also has witnessed them first hand. The promises being the "heavenly
country of 11:16. Enoch had been living in this heavenly country for thousands of years at the time Hebrews was written.
Anyway, as an alternate interpretation of Heb 11:5 keeping 11:13 in mind, I would say that Enoch's life was in danger and God moved him from one location to another safer location (translated him) on Earth so he wouldn't die (taste death) at that present time. He later died of course, but his whereabouts were unknown and only recorded up until the time of this "translation".
The original Greek word translated as "all" in Hebrews 11:13 doesn't have to mean absolutely all. For example, it doesn't mean absolutely all in John 3:26.)
Hebrews 11 is in an ordered list format that requires the more formal application of G3956. An example of this application would be if you had a grocery list consisting of milk, eggs and bread, you couldn't say that you got "all" that was on your list if you forgot the bread.
John 3:13 must mean that no man but Jesus had physically ascended into heaven by his own power, for Elijah did physically ascend into heaven by God's power (2 Kings 2:11), and Enoch did physically ascend into heaven by God's power so that Enoch wouldn't see death (Hebrews 11:5).
Jesus is both said to have "ascended" (Eph 4:8, Eph 4:9, Joh 3:13) into heaven and been "taken up" into heaven (Act 1:11, Act 1:22)
We can know that Jesus was "taken up" into heaven because while it's possible to ascend either by your own power or the power of another. It's only possible to be "taken up" by the power of another.
God bless you,
crush