True name of the Messiah.

[yeshuasavedme]

Rad said: YHWH (יהו&#1492 would be four consonants.
"YHWH" was written on the High Priest's Turben. Josephus said it was four vowels [corrected]




Originally Posted by yeshuasavedme

as Jesus and Paul both were accused of blasphemy for saying the name of God, apparently
​

Rad said: Where on earth do you get that from? The Bible doesn't say that.

The Bible does not say "Trinity", but He is Triune.
The Bible does not say a lot of things we know by study, and study must sometimes go to true, documented history of the times, to understand the times.
The Law was wrongly made by priests who were apostates, though they sat in Moses' seat, to forbid saying the name of God. Anyone who said it, instead of a substitute, was accused of blasphemy.
Both Jesus and Paul were accused of Blasphemy deserving of death, at different times, for what they said, and many agree that at least one of the times, they each said "The Name", instead of a substitute, and for that, they were accused of blasphemy, according to the law made by men, but not by God.

If you could get a copy of the original Gospel of Matthew -which evidence is in it to prove it was originally written in Hebrew [but I digress]- you would see in Matthew 26, that Jesus had to have said the forbidden name to be accused of blasphemy at that time. The high priest went into a conniption hissy fit.

Mat 26:64 Jesus saith unto him, Thou hast said: nevertheless I say unto you, Hereafter shall ye see the Son of man sitting on the right hand of YHWH, and coming in the clouds of heaven.
Mat 26:65 Then the high priest rent his clothes, saying, He hath spoken blasphemy; what further need have we of witnesses? behold, now ye have heard his blasphemy.




Originally Posted by yeshuasavedme

Jesus said we are His disciples, which means "pupa"
​

Rad said:

No, it doesn't.

Yes, discipulis is a pupil, a student, which is from the word Pupa.
And that's not all, a pupa is encased within a chrysalis, which is from the word for gold, and the gold plated wood Ark of the Covenant types our chrysalis, who are hid in Christ with God, in the heavenly Ark, from which, when opened, we will come forth in the metamorphosis we are undergoing while "hid in Christ with God, underneath the Mercy Seat covering, which is His body of New Man flesh typed by Moses as incorruptible gold, which types the body of the New Creation Man, who is the Firstborn of all creation, and whose body could not corrupt in three days while His soul and spirit were absent from it.

Col 3:3 For ye are dead, and your life is hid with Christ in God.
Rev 11:19 And the temple of God was opened in heaven, and there was seen in his temple the ark of his testament: and there were lightnings, and voices, and thunderings, and an earthquake, and great hail.

 

[yeshuasavedme]

We all breathe "The Name", from birth to death

The Sound Of Our Breathing
Jason Gray, Doug McKelvey, Seth Mosely


http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=B8ak33G865Y

 

[Radagast]

Rad said: YHWH (יהו&#1492 would be four consonants.
"YHWH" was written on the High Priest's Turben. Josephus said it was four consonants.

Earlier, you said "vowels." Consonants is correct.

If you could get a copy of the original Gospel of Matthew -which evidence is in it to prove it was originally written in Hebrew [but I digress]- you would see in Matthew 26, that Jesus had to have said the forbidden name to be accused of blasphemy at that time.

There is no such thing. There may have been an Aramaic Logion pre-dating the Gospel, but the original Gospel of Matthew was Greek. The so-called "Hebrew version" was created by Jews in the Middle ages. It is not reliable.

And Matt 26:64-65 says: Jesus said to him, “You have said so. But I tell you, from now on you will see the Son of Man seated at the right hand of Power (δυνάμεω&#962 and coming on the clouds of heaven.” Then the high priest tore his robes and said, “He has uttered blasphemy. What further witnesses do we need? You have now heard his blasphemy.

The so-called "blasphemy" referred to by the high priest is the phrase "seated at the right hand of Power and coming on the clouds of heaven" -- not the uttering of the name YHWH.

Jesus said we are His disciples, which means "pupa"

Actually, the NT uses neither the words "disciple" nor "pupil," but mathētḗs.

 

[yeshuasavedme]

Posted by yeshuasavedme

Rad said: YHWH (יהו&#1492 would be four consonants.
"YHWH" was written on the High Priest's Turben. Josephus said it was four consonants.
​

Rad said: Earlier, you said "vowels." Consonants is correct.

Thank you for calling my attention to my error. I will correct it.
I said that Josephus said the name of God written on the High PRiest's Turban is four vowels, when I erred in my typing -fingers not connected to brain- it was my error, for Josephus said vowels, as I already wrote.



Originally Posted by yeshuasavedme

If you could get a copy of the original Gospel of Matthew -which evidence is in it to prove it was originally written in Hebrew [but I digress]- you would see in Matthew 26, that Jesus had to have said the forbidden name to be accused of blasphemy at that time.
​

Rad said: There is no such thing. There may have been an Aramaic Logion pre-dating the Gospel, but the original Gospel of Matthew was Greek. The so-called "Hebrew version" was created by Jews in the Middle ages. It is not reliable.

I have no idea of any middle ages Gospel of Matthew, but the Gospels themselves, as well as the Book of Acts, have proof enough that the Jews spoke and wrote in the Hebrew language -as well as many speaking Greek or other languages.
The denial that the Jews spoke and wrote the Hebrew language at the time of Christ is easily proved to be untrue, by the Scriptures themselves.
Not on this thread, though, I Think I have written about that on this board in times past.

 

[yeshuasavedme]

Rad, the pupa is Latin, and the pupil is the disciple, the student, and the Gospels are also written in Latin.

 

[Radagast]

Thank you for calling my attention to my error. I will correct it.
I said that Josephus said the name of God written on the High PRiest's Turban is four vowels, when I erred in my typing -fingers not connected to brain- it was my error, for Josephus said vowels, as I already wrote.

"Consonants" is correct. Ancient written Hebrew had no vowels. That's why medieval Jews invented niqqud.

If you could get a copy of the original Gospel of Matthew -which evidence is in it to prove it was originally written in Hebrew [but I digress]- you would see in Matthew 26, that Jesus had to have said the forbidden name to be accused of blasphemy at that time.
​

I have no idea of any middle ages Gospel of Matthew, but the Gospels themselves, as well as the Book of Acts, have proof enough that the Jews spoke and wrote in the Hebrew language -as well as many speaking Greek or other languages.
The denial that the Jews spoke and wrote the Hebrew language at the time of Christ is easily proved to be untrue, by the Scriptures themselves.
Not on this thread, though, I Think I have written about that on this board in times past.

There is no "original Hebrew Gospel of Matthew" -- it was written in Greek. First century Jews spoke Aramaic and Greek, and read the Scriptures in Hebrew and Greek (mostly Greek).

The NT itself gives evidence of this, mostly quoting the Greek OT (the Septuagint), and including words and phrases in Aramaic, such as "Talitha koum" (Mark 5:41), "Ephphatha" (Mark 7:34), and "Rabboni" (John 20:16).

Rad, the pupa is Latin, and the pupil is the disciple, the student, and the Gospels are also written in Latin.

The Gospels were written in Greek. They were translated into Latin, just as they have been translated into English. There is no way that "disciple" (mathētḗs in Greek) refers to a "pupa."

 

[yeshuasavedme]

"Consonants" is correct. Ancient written Hebrew had no vowels. That's why medieval Jews invented niqqud.
...
"

Rad, the Hebrew language has no separate "written" vowels, but it is impossible to speak without vowels.
No, Rad, vowels/breathing letters were not invented in the middle ages. You are speaking of writing vowel points to help people pronounce a word who were new to Hebrew.
Here is a lesson in Hebrew vowels:
Introduction to Hebrew Vowels (Printer Version)

Here is Josephus' quote of the name of God being four vowels:

.
http://www.ccel.org/j/josephus/works/war-5.htm
A mitre also of fine linen encompassed his head, which was tied by a blue ribbon, about which there was another golden crown, in which was engraven the sacred name [of God]: it consists of four vowels. However, the high priest did not wear these garments at other times, but a more plain habit; he only did it when he went into the most sacred part of the temple, which he did but once in a year, on that day when our custom is for all of us to keep a fast to God. And thus much concerning the city and the temple; but for the customs and laws hereto relating, we shall speak more accurately another time; for there remain a great many things thereto relating which have not been here touched upon.

 

[Radagast]

Rad, the Hebrew language has no separate "written" vowels, but it is impossible to speak without vowels.

Indeed. That is why I said "ancient written Hebrew had no vowels." Which is exactly why nobody knows for certain how YHWH (יהו&#1492 was originally pronounced.

Here is a lesson in Hebrew vowels:
Introduction to Hebrew Vowels (Printer Version):

That is the niqqud I mentioned. It was invented in the Middle Ages. See the link I gave.

Your own link says: "Sometime beginning around 600 A.D., a group of scribes in Tiberias called the Masoretes (mesora means "tradition") began developing a system of vowel marks (called neqqudot) to indicate how the text was traditionally read. Since these scribes did not want to alter the consonantal text, they placed these markings under, to the left, and above the Hebrew letters." That's exactly what I've been saying.

Here is Josephus' quote of the name of God being four vowels:

I know what Josephus said. Still, YHWH (יהו&#1492 is a set of consonants, although you might also call them semivowels. They are not vowels.

 

[yeshuasavedme]

Indeed. That is why I said "ancient written Hebrew had no vowels." Which is exactly why nobody knows for certain how YHWH (יהו&#1492 was originally pronounced.



That is the niqqud I mentioned. It was invented in the Middle Ages. See the link I gave.

Your own link says: "Sometime beginning around 600 A.D., a group of scribes in Tiberias called the Masoretes (mesora means "tradition") began developing a system of vowel marks (called neqqudot) to indicate how the text was traditionally read. Since these scribes did not want to alter the consonantal text, they placed these markings under, to the left, and above the Hebrew letters." That's exactly what I've been saying.



I know what Josephus said. Still, YHWH (יהו&#1492 is a set of consonants, although you might also call them semivowels. They are not vowels.

Rad:

Your post is opposing itself.
The ancient and modern Hebrews, fluent in the language, do not need to use vowel points -which you admitted were invented as marks on the letters to show they were vowels in that word. They know, and knew, how to read their language; and they know, and knew, when a letter of their aleph- bet, written in a word, is/was pronounced as a consonant, is/was silent, or is/was a vowel.
As you said, system of marking vowel points was invented about 600 AD, as marks on the letters to show they were vowels in that word.
It is a myth to claim that "YHWH" was not known how to pronounce, or say. The letters were "spoken" as vowels in the Name, as Josephus said.

But you want to say Josephus did not know what he was writing about, and did not know how to pronounce the name, "YHWH"; and that is a bit arrogant, is it not, to try to" re-write Josephus" according to your own opinion, based on faulty information?

Josephus was two thousand years ago, and he read and spoke his Hebrew language, and he knew what vowels were.

The Scriptures are clear that the Jews of that time spoke and read Hebrew.
Luk 23:38 And a superscription also was written over him in letters of Greek, and Latin, and Hebrew, THIS IS THE KING OF THE JEWS.

Jhn 19:20 This title then read many of the Jews: for the place where Jesus was crucified was nigh to the city: and it was written in Hebrew, and Greek, and Latin.


Act 21:40 And when he had given him licence, Paul stood on the stairs, and beckoned with the hand unto the people. And when there was made a great silence, he spake unto them in the Hebrew tongue, saying,

Jesus spoke Hebrew to Saul
Act 26:14 And when we were all fallen to the earth, I heard a voice speaking unto me, and saying in the Hebrew tongue, Saul, Saul, why persecutest thou me? it is hard for thee to kick against the pricks.


There are many other proofs in the Scriptures that Hebrew was the language of the Jews when Christ was incarnated, and the angel spoke Hebrew, when he said "you shall call His name "Yeshua", for He shall save His people from their sins.

The angel did not speak Greek to announce the name of the Messiah, for to His own, He came, first, and then to the nations.
He is YESHUA, YHWH come in flesh of new creation, and He came unto His own Hebrew speaking people, of whom many also spoke the language of the empire, but not all. That is why Pilate wrote Hebrew above the cross, for the Jews to read -as the Scriptures say.

 

[Radagast]

The ancient and modern Hebrews, fluent in the language, do not need to use vowel points -which you admitted were invented as marks on the letters to show they were vowels in that word. They know, and knew, how to read their language

Ancient Jews could not write vowels. That is why nobody knows for certain how YHWH (יהו&#1492 was originally pronounced. Because for many centuries Jews did not say the name, all memory of how to pronounce it was lost, and without written vowels there was no record.

Modern Hebrew is a different language, and expresses vowels using ktiv male.

that is a bit arrogant, is it not, to try to" re-write Josephus" according to your own opinion, based on faulty information?

The issue is one of how best to translate his Greek text. The line of the text is J. BJ 5.235, and Josephus uses the phrase φωνήεντα τέσσαρα, which would be better translated "four sounds."

The Scriptures are clear that the Jews of that time spoke and read Hebrew.
Jhn 19:20 This title then read many of the Jews: for the place where Jesus was crucified was nigh to the city: and it was written in Hebrew, and Greek, and Latin.

Well, no.

The NIV has "Many of the Jews read this sign, for the place where Jesus was crucified was near the city, and the sign was written in Aramaic, Latin and Greek."

The ESV: Many of the Jews read this inscription, for the place where Jesus was crucified was near the city, and it was written in Aramaic, in Latin, and in Greek.

The KJV is not a reliable translation.

There are many other proofs in the Scriptures that Hebrew was the language of the Jews when Christ was incarnated, and the angel spoke Hebrew, when he said "you shall call His name "Yeshua", for He shall save His people from their sins.

We know from history that Jews of the time spoke Aramaic and Greek. That is why they were mostly using the Scriptures in Greek translation. And when the New Testament records actual non-Greek speech -- such as "Talitha koum" (Mark 5:41), "Ephphatha" (Mark 7:34), and "Rabboni" (John 20:16) -- it is always Aramaic rather than Hebrew.

The angel did not speak Hebrew, and the New Testament does not use the name "Yeshua."

But I think this discussion is starting to go around in circles...

 

[yeshuasavedme]

Rad, I am aghast at your claims that are so easily refuted by Scripture and by history.
You claim that, because some modern translations use the word "Aramaic" to translate the word "Hebrew", from the NT, that the translators knew more than the original authors, who said very clearly "Hebrew".

Pilate wrote the words above the cross in three languages: Greek, Latin, and Hebrew.
Not "Aramaic". That is not in the Scriptures.

The Vulgate says "Hebrew". The Greek says "Hebrew", and the English is properly translated "Hebrew", because that is what it says.

Luk 23:38 And a superscription also was written over him in letters of Greek, and Latin, and Hebrew, THIS IS THE KING OF THE JEWS.
Ἑβραϊκός Hebraïkos


Jhn 19:19 And Pilate wrote a title, and put it on the cross. And the writing was, JESUS OF NAZARETH THE KING OF THE JEWS.
Jhn 19:20 This title then read many of the Jews: for the place where Jesus was crucified was nigh to the city: and it was written in Hebrew, and Greek, and Latin.
Act 21:40 And when he had given him licence, Paul stood on the stairs, and beckoned with the hand unto the people. And when there was made a great silence, he spake unto them in the Hebrew tongue, saying,


g1447 Ἑβραϊστί Hebraïsti


The angel said you shall call His name YESHUA, for He shall save His people from their sins.
Yeshua means "Salvation".
The Israelites of Jesus' day spoke Hebrew, and wrote Hebrew, and read Hebrew.
That is why Pilate wrote the charge in Hebrew, Greek, and Latin.
There are Dead Sea Scrolls from about that time written in Hebrew.

Aramaic is not Scripture truth for the language of the Jews at the time of Christ.
Jesus spoke Hebrew to Saul, who was, in his own words, a "Hebrew of Hebrews".

Phl 3:5
Circumcised the eighth day, of the stock of Israel, of the tribe of Benjamin, an Hebrew of the Hebrews; as touching the law, a Pharisee;
Salvation is a Hebrew name. Joshua, the son of Nun, was named "Salvation" -Yeshua, by his father. Moses changed it to "YAH is Salvaton", "Joshua"


Ἑβραῖος Hebraios


Isaiah means Salvation
Hosea means Salvation, and both are the same name as Yeshua.
The angel did not coming speaking Greek to the namesake people of YHWH to announce the incarnation of Yeshua=
מָשִׁיחַ mashiyach -the Messiah

the Messiah

 

[yeshuasavedme]

Ancient Jews could not write vowels. That is why nobody knows for certain how YHWH (יהו&#1492 was originally pronounced. Because for many centuries Jews did not say the name, all memory of how to pronounce it was lost, and without written vowels there was no record.

Modern Hebrew is a different language, and expresses vowels using ktiv male.
...

Again, rad, I am aghast at your assertions which are said in ignorance of the Hebrew aleph-bet, ancient and present.
Vowels are always used to speak words, but Hebrew does not have written vowels, but the words written determine the usage of the letters as consonants or vowels.
And your claim that Josephus did not write that the name of God on the high priests turban was four vowels is outright obfuscation of the truth, for Josephus said it, and knew how to read it.

The ancient and modern Jews fluent in Hebrew do not write vowel points, they know when a consonant letter is a vowel, or silent, in a written word.

There are street signs in Israel and even newspapers in Israel that do not use vowel points, for the readers are fluent in the tongue.
There is no need for vowel points, which were invented to aid reading, but they who redid the Hebrew Scriptures are in proven errors in some of their vowel point usage.
One speaks vowels to say a word. In Hebrew, one writes the consonants, and learn the vowel sounds a consonant makes in particular words by growing up with the language.

 

[Radagast]

Rad, I am aghast at your claims that are so easily refuted by Scripture and by history.
You claim that, because some modern translations use the word "Aramaic" to translate the word "Hebrew", from the NT, that the translators knew more than the original authors, who said very clearly "Hebrew".

No, they didn't. We know both from history and from actual non-Greek speech quoted in the New Testament -- such as "Talitha koum" (Mark 5:41), "Ephphatha" (Mark 7:34), and "Rabboni" (John 20:16) -- that 1st century Hebrew people spoke Aramaic.

And the name "Yeshua" occurs nowhere in the New Testament.

There are street signs in Israel and even newspapers in Israel that do not use vowel points

Because they now use ktiv male instead of vowel points. Modern Hebrew is a different language from that of the OT.

One speaks vowels to say a word. In Hebrew, one writes the consonants, and learn the vowel sounds a consonant makes in particular words by growing up with the language.

Medieval Jews could not "learn the vowel sounds a consonant makes in particular words by growing up with the language" for YHWH (יהו&#1492 because they were forbidden to say it. Memory of the vowel sounds for YHWH (יהו&#1492 was therefore lost.

But, like I said, I think this discussion is starting to go around in circles...

 

[He is Risen 72]

The name of the messiah is Jesus Christ, say it and be saved.

 

[Radagast]

The name of the messiah is Jesus Christ

 

[yeshuasavedme]

No, they didn't. We know both from history and from actual non-Greek speech quoted in the New Testament -- such as "Talitha koum" (Mark 5:41), "Ephphatha" (Mark 7:34), and "Rabboni" (John 20:16) -- that 1st century Hebrew people spoke Aramaic.

And the name "Yeshua" occurs nowhere in the New Testament.

But, like I said, I think this discussion is starting to go around in circles...

This discussion is about the "True name of the LORD", and so these things are necessary to have an honest debate.
To claim that translators who changed the original Hebrew word in the NT to "Aramaic", as if they were "inspired to do so because of some superior knowledge, is the same as arguing that God did not know how to have Moses write about the Creation, cause people could not understand it, so the moderns tell us what God really meant to say...NOT!

Jesus Spoke Hebrew: Busting the "Aramaic" Myth book review at Amazon

ByDr. J. Sarfation July 3, 2013
In describing Jesus' language, the NT and patristic writings used the Greeks word for Hebrew (Hebrais, Hebraios, Hebraikos). Unless there is a good reason to do otherwise, we should take those in the straightforward meaning: they really do mean "Hebrew". The NIV puts "Aramaic" in those places, but this is reading this Aramaic theory into the text (eisegesis).

The NT writers had an enormous regard for the OT as the very Word of God, and the OT took great care to distinguish the two, e.g. Daniel having to learn Aramaic (Dan. 1:4) and the Jewish leaders begging Rabshakeh to speak Aramaic rather than Hebrew so the people would not understand his mocking (Is. 36:11). So it's reasonable to assume that the NT writers also would not have called Aramaic "Hebrew".

Josephus, who lived not long after Christ, also took much care to differentiate Hebrew and Aramaic, and says that Hebrew was spoken in 1st century Israel. Minge documents that Hebrew was widely spoken in that area at that time, while Aramaic did not become popular till much later. For example, the Jerusalem Talmud declares: "Four languages are of value: Greek for song, Latin for war, Aramaic for dirges, and Hebrew for speaking."

Minge's thesis is that Jesus spoke Hebrew with a Galilean accent (cf. Mt. 26:73b, where a woman picked Peter as a Galilean because of his speech) as opposed to a Judean accent. Just compare the proper English we speak in Australia with the American butchered variety E.g. Jesus read from the temple scroll and referred to Hebrew letters in the expression rendered "jot and tittle".
Some of the alleged Aramaisms can be attributed to features like the Galilean accent or loan words. I mean, if I say "After a sauna, I went to a restaurant and ordered pizza" the Finnish, French and Italian loan words in English would not prove that I was speaking any of those languages. Other alleged Aramaisms are really Hebraisms, sometimes Mishnaic Hebrew. E.g. Talitha koumi is normal Hebrew for "arise" (qûm) with the feminine ending -i. Hakeldamach comes from normal Hebrew dam (blood), and cheleq (allotted portion, including of land). Cephas can be explained by a Hebrew word for rock keph found in Job 30:6 and Jeremiah 4:29.

Paul L. Maier, the Russell H. Siebert Professor of Ancient History at Western Michigan University and expert on Josephus, and commentator on the complete works of Josephus, wrote on the back cover:
"[This issue] has for too long been subject to crowd following in what was supposed to be an airtight case for Aramaic. You have surely blasted this wide open, and I herewith raise the white flag in my die-hard attempts to salvage Aramaic ... this is really excellent reseearch."

http://www.amazon.com/Jesus-Spoke-Hebrew-Busting-Aramaic/product-reviews/0957986807

 

[yeshuasavedme]

The name of the messiah is Jesus Christ, say it and be saved.

If you speak English, yes [unless you like to call Him "Yeshua"], because of the dividing of the mother tongue into the many, at Babel.
But to a Jew who has met Him, He is "Yeshua", for that is what the angel said to call Him..."Salvation".

 

[Radagast]

The Jerusalem Talmud was written 400 years after Jesus, so has nothing useful to tell us.

Ironically, however, much of the Jerusalem Talmud is written in Aramaic. As are parts of the book of Daniel.

And Minge not withstanding, the non-Greek speech quoted in the New Testament is indeed Aramaic. Talitha for damsel/maiden is an Aramaic word, for example, not a Hebrew one.

 

[yeshuasavedme]

The Jerusalem Talmud was written 400 years after Jesus, so has nothing useful to tell us.

Ironically, however, much of the Jerusalem Talmud is written in Aramaic. As are parts of the book of Daniel.

And Minge not withstanding, the non-Greek speech quoted in the New Testament is indeed Aramaic. Talitha for damsel/maiden is an Aramaic word, for example, not a Hebrew one.

I think I'll go with Minge on that one, and he is qualified and in agreement with the Word.
Esp since Jesus spoke Hebrew to Saul, a Hebrew, and Pilate wrote the charge placed over Jesus in Hebrew, Greek, and Latin.
The Bible says it it so.

Jesus grew up speaking Hebrew among Hebrew speaking people, and He still speaks Hebrew to Hebrew speaking people.
He speaks English to me.
He speaks Taiwanese to my SIL, and He speaks Russian to my daughter's friend; but to His own Hebrew people, He spoke Hebrew -and He does so today.

Jesus Spoke Hebrew: Busting the "Aramaic" Myth

Minge's thesis is that Jesus spoke Hebrew with a Galilean accent (cf. Mt. 26:73b, where a woman picked Peter as a Galilean because of his speech) as opposed to a Judean accent. Just compare the proper English we speak in Australia with the American butchered variety E.g. Jesus read from the temple scroll and referred to Hebrew letters in the expression rendered "jot and tittle".
Some of the alleged Aramaisms can be attributed to features like the Galilean accent or loan words. I mean, if I say "After a sauna, I went to a restaurant and ordered pizza" the Finnish, French and Italian loan words in English would not prove that I was speaking any of those languages. Other alleged Aramaisms are really Hebraisms, sometimes Mishnaic Hebrew. E.g. Talitha koumi is normal Hebrew for "arise" (qûm) with the feminine ending -i. Hakeldamach comes from normal Hebrew dam (blood), and cheleq (allotted portion, including of land). Cephas can be explained by a Hebrew word for rock keph found in Job 30:6 and Jeremiah 4:29.

 

[Radagast]

I think I'll go with Minge on that one, and he is qualified

No he isn't.

Esp since Jesus spoke Hebrew to Saul, a Hebrew, and Pilate wrote the charge placed over Jesus in Hebrew, Greek, and Latin.
The Bible says it it so.

No, no, and no again. For reasons already stated.