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The bible does not state anyone can perfectly uphold the law which is what sinless perfection entails. Please read James 2:10, Gal3:10&11, Rom 4:14&15
Well, I already provided verses that say we can be perfect or holy in Post #269.
http://www.christianforums.com/thre...tional-security.7914686/page-14#post-68805885
And Post #275.
http://www.christianforums.com/thre...tional-security.7914686/page-14#post-68806109
As for James 2:10: Well, this verse is talking about breaking the Royal Law (or one of God's eternal moral laws). James is talking about being hypocritical in breaking such laws (Which is the point he is trying to make about showing favoritism when the body gathers to have fellowship). Paul says the same thing.
"Thou therefore which teachest another, teachest thou not thyself? thou that preachest a man should not steal, dost thou steal? Thou that sayest a man should not commit adultery, dost thou commit adultery? thou that abhorrest idols, dost thou commit sacrilege? Thou that makest thy boast of the law, through breaking the law dishonourest thou God? For the name of God is blasphemed among the Gentiles through you, as it is written." (Romans 2:21-24).
For Paul is concerned with keeping the moral law.
"Owe no man any thing, but to love one another: for he that loveth another hath fulfilled the law. For this, Thou shalt not commit adultery, Thou shalt not kill, Thou shalt not steal, Thou shalt not bear false witness, Thou shalt not covet; and if there be any other commandment, it is briefly comprehended in this saying, namely, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself. Love worketh no ill to his neighbour: therefore love is the fulfilling of the law." (Romans 13:8-10).
Love fulfills the Law. The ceremonial and judicial law? No. The eternal moral law (Which was present even in the Old Testament Law of Moses). For loving my neighbor does not have anything to do with keeping the Sabbath. Paul is talking about the eternal moral law.
As for Galatians 3:10-11: Again, this in reference to being justified alone by the Law of Moses. Context is key. Verse 17 says that the law came 430 years after the Promise to Abraham.
"And this I say, that the covenant, that was confirmed before of God in Christ, the law, which was four hundred and thirty years after, cannot disannul, that it should make the promise of none effect. " (Galatians 3:17).
"This is what I am trying to say: The agreement God made with Abraham could not be canceled 430 years later when God gave the law to Moses. God would be breaking his promise" (Galatians 3:17) (New Living Translation).
As for Romans 4:14-15: Well, you have to keep reading.
"What then? shall we sin, because we are not under the law, but under grace? God forbid. Know ye not, that to whom ye yield yourselves servants to obey, his servants ye are to whom ye obey; whether of sin unto death, or of obedience unto righteousness? But God be thanked, that ye were the servants of sin, but ye have obeyed from the heart that form of doctrine which was delivered you. Being then made free from sin, ye became the servants of righteousness" (Romans 6:15-18).
So is one a servant or slave to righteousness if they are enslaved to sin?
I say thee nay.
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