Your position seems to be sola scriptura, something that is never a solid argument IMO anyway.
I guess we are simply in disagreement then. For me, it's a little more complicated than that. I find the anti-SS arguments to be so unconvincing that I almost always tend to defend SS against them, quite apart from whether or not I count myself as a SS Christian. But I do believe in SS because I can't imagine how ANY source or alleged source of inspiration and guidance, whether it be direct communication with the divine, custom and folklore, or the supposed inspiration of church leaders (there are Christians who denouce Sola Scriptura in favor of one or more of them), could beat the Word of God.
To put it slightly differently, we all say that the Word of God is true. It has proven itself and just about every church affirms the inspired nature of Holy Writ. So what is better? What can be equal to that which is of God and given for our instruction?
To place something else on such a pedestal necessarily is to demote the very Word of God. How any Christian can in good conscience support that is amazing to me.
Are you saying that because the Holy Rosary didn't spring up until the Middle Ages (which is true, you are correct) then Marian devotion didn't exist prior?
No, I am saying two things. One, the rosary has no particular importance as a devotional (although you'd never know that from reading the posts we see here), on the Traditionalist's own scale of things. It is not ancient. It has been redesigned many times. The prayers have been changed frequently. The story of its supposed origins is not historical, and so on. Second, the whole range of Marian devotions is being defended because the early church did petition the saints, but the one isn't at all the same as the other. It's mainly the embellishments, the exaggerations, and the ongoing gilding of the lily that I caution people about. For a comparison, if the Tridentine Mass is criticised for any reason, is it convincing to say hat the early church broke bread and distributed it? NO.
Are you implying that the Eastern Orthodox never had Marian devotion and confidence in her intercession because they didn't stick around with the Catholics post-1054 to get rosaries?
No.
u ever read the Divine Liturgy of St. John Chrysostom?
Sure.
would you care to count how many zillions of times the liturgy references the intercession or devotion to the "Most pure, my Holy Theotokos?"
Once again my criticisms are specific. You can't just find something more or less in the same general area and say, "well, they are the same."
Is St. John Chrysostom of the Middle Ages? He lived as a contemporary of Augustine of Hippo?
What's your point? They are saints and that's it. They didn't live during the early days of the Church.
I'm glad you said "famous" apparitions appeared recently. That leaves the door open to the fact that Mary has appeared to the Church East and West long before "recent" times.
When did Lourdes, Guadalupe, Knock, Fatima, Medjugordia (sp?) occur?
Speaking in tongues and Marian devotion are just plain apples and oranges. I think you're arguing an unwinable position, Albion.
Oh well, I find that very few people on these forums are willing to consider anything that goes against their preconveived positions. The most that I can do is bring the information to their attention and hope that they think on it when they don't have to humiliate themselves online by agreeing with me.
There are few Christians in here, liberal or conservative, who will make the claim that Marian devotion is some late innovation and is somehow wrong, improper, or as you characterize it, a bandwagon pseudo-worship for feel-good reasons. If
I haven't criticised it as a bandwagon pseudo-worship, although I applaud the creator of that term. Very colorful.
ek a sola scriptura stance, you won't find it Marian devotion. It wasn't referenced because Mary was still alive!
With respect, that doesn't make any sense. The same people will easily say that the Papal office, transubstantiation, purgatory, and many other such doctrines are supported by scripture even though there is no mention of any of them in the Bible. What they mean, of course, is that which is there either precludes or gives support to the belief if not explicitly.
Praying to the dead could very well be found in scripture, if it were a Biblical teaching, regardless of the specifics of mary's life.