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This caught me off guard.

nill

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There are so many smarter Calvinists than I... Real debate has never been my thing, and I couldn't imagine myself actually being involved in setting up solid defense of the doctrines of grace... I just am left wondering how it's in any way possible that people would reject these doctrines of grace. Seriously, I am. But on to my question:

This particular passage of a particular book caught me off guard:

====================
It is obvious that the measure of human responsibility varies in different cases, and is greater or less with particular individuals. The standard of measurement was given in the Saviour’s words, "For unto whomsoever much is given, of him shall much be required" (Luke 12:48). Surely God did not require as much from those living in Old Testament times as He does from those who have been born during the Christian dispensation. Surely God will not require as much from those who lived during the ‘dark ages,’ when the Scriptures were accessible to but a few, as He will from those of this generation, when practically every family in the land own a copy of His Word for themselves. In the same way, God will not demand from the heathen what He will from those in Christendom. The heathen will not perish because they have not believed in Christ, but because they failed to live up to the light which they did have—the testimony of God in nature and conscience.
====================

Of particular interest in this particular passage in this particular book is the particular part I have particularly bolded. Is this....... right?
 

mlqurgw

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I believe the Scriptures do teach that there are degrees of punishment in Hell. But we must keep in mind that it is still everlasting punishment. It still is full of weeping and gnashing of teeth. It is still a place of torment and everlasting destruction.
 
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UMP

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Neal said:
In the same way, God will not demand from the heathen what He will from those in Christendom. The heathen will not perish because they have not believed in Christ, but because they failed to live up to the light which they did have—the testimony of God in nature and conscience.

I must agree with the above quote, assuming the "heathen" in question have the natural ability to evidence God from His creation.
God's Word declares that man is "without excuse", even those who have not heard of Christ because God is clearly evidenced in His creation:

Romans 1:
[20] For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse:

I think this brings up another good topic. The difference between moral ability and natural ability.
For example, how can one see or evidence God from His creation if he is a baby or mentally retarded?
I think Pink explains it well:
(The following quote taken from the same book, same chapter, a couple paragraphs up from your quote :) )

"Now, in like manner, the sinner while altogether lacking in moral and spiritual ability does, nevertheless, possess natural ability, and this it is which renders him accountable unto God. Men have the same natural faculties to love God with as they have to hate Him with, the same hearts to believe with as to disbelieve, and it is their failure to love and believe which constitutes their guilt. An idiot or an infant is not personally responsible to God, because lacking in natural ability. But the normal man who is endowed with rationality, who is gifted with a conscience that is capable of distinguishing between right and wrong, who is able to weigh eternal issues IS a responsible being, and it is because he does possess these very faculties that he will yet have to "give an account of himself to God" (Rom. 14:12)."

A.W. Pink

Hence:
Luke 12:48
For unto whomsoever much is given, of him shall be much required:


Conversely, if nothing is given (no moral ability whatsoever), how much will be required ???
 
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nill

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But it kind of sounds like to me that he's skipping that belief in Christ is necessary. I'm actually reading the book--almost done--and so I was pretty sure that A.W. Pink would not have said that belief in Christ is unnecessary. In fact, he's been stressing that in addition to fore-ordaining the end, God also fore-ordains the means. So if God elected me from North America and Nguumabe from Africa, He has determined that we will both be saved. He has decreed--so far that I remember--that the primary means to salvation comes by hearing the Gospel preached. But the thing is, even if it was by another means, the same is required of both me and Nguumabe: belief in Christ! Isn't that right? Pink just made it sound, in that paragraph that I highlighted, as though that were not the case--that God requires living up to a light rather than belief in Christ for some. I had just merely accepted that God--of course in His predestinating power--had decreed that Christians spread the Gospel, and He decreed that His elect would believe in Christ for salvation, however it would be achieved. That includes, inevitably, however way God would work within the hearts of an infant or an idiot to bring them to belief in Christ. Sorry... it's just not sitting well with me to say that in some regard, salvation does not require belief in Christ for some people. I mean, even the people in Athens worshipped an "unknown god" (Acts 17:23), but then Paul preached to them the Gospel, didn't he? That would have been God fore-ordaining that Paul bring them the means (preaching and hearing) for belief in Christ for salvation. Then why are some said to not need to believe in Christ? I keep coming back to that one, I see...
 
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UMP

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Neal said:
But it kind of sounds like to me that he's skipping that belief in Christ is necessary. I'm actually reading the book--almost done--and so I was pretty sure that A.W. Pink would not have said that belief in Christ is unnecessary. In fact, he's been stressing that in addition to fore-ordaining the end, God also fore-ordains the means. So if God elected me from North America and Nguumabe from Africa, He has determined that we will both be saved. He has decreed--so far that I remember--that the primary means to salvation comes by hearing the Gospel preached. But the thing is, even if it was by another means, the same is required of both me and Nguumabe: belief in Christ! Isn't that right? Pink just made it sound, in that paragraph that I highlighted, as though that were not the case--that God requires living up to a light rather than belief in Christ for some. I had just merely accepted that God--of course in His predestinating power--had decreed that Christians spread the Gospel, and He decreed that His elect would believe in Christ for salvation, however it would be achieved. That includes, inevitably, however way God would work within the hearts of an infant or an idiot to bring them to belief in Christ. Sorry... it's just not sitting well with me to say that in some regard, salvation does not require belief in Christ for some people. I mean, even the people in Athens worshipped an "unknown god" (Acts 17:23), but then Paul preached to them the Gospel, didn't he? That would have been God fore-ordaining that Paul bring them the means (preaching and hearing) for belief in Christ for salvation. Then why are some said to not need to believe in Christ? I keep coming back to that one, I see...

Yes,
I understand what you are saying. As a matter of fact, we just had an in debth discussion, not too long ago on exaclty your concerns.

http://www.christianforums.com/t2958585-question.html

I posted the following (post number #21) in the above thread.

"Those who are saved are saved by the gospel itself; i.e., they are saved by the death, burial, and resurrection of Christ. That is the only “gospel salvation” there is. Hearing the gospel preached is the best “good news” sinners will ever hear in this life, but they are neither saved nor regenerated by merely hearing about it. The message of a work accomplished always arrives after the fact. It is finished."


The Gospel, or Talking About the Gospel?
When asked what the gospel of Jesus Christ is, many say it is “the power of God unto salvation,” drawing this from Romans 1.16, as though that verse somehow defines the gospel.
“The power of God unto salvation” is not the definition of the gospel. It is an attribute of the gospel and not the gospel itself. “Brown-eyed” is an attribute, but it does not define who and what a person is. If one asks, “What is an automobile?” and another answers, “It is the power of a gasoline engine to get you where you want to go,” he would be talking of an attribute of automotive engineering and not defining an automobile. His answer could as easily be applied to an airplane or to a riding lawnmower. In like manner, “the power of God unto salvation” describes the gospel, but it simply does not define it.
Nor is the gospel how you or I think the gospel should be defined. The Scriptures, as their own authority, say the gospel is defined by the Scriptures. Since the Scriptures were divinely originated, designed, inspired, and completed by God, nothing can be added to or taken away from their testimony as to exactly what the gospel is.
And preaching about the power of God, as important as that is, is not the gospel. Many sermons based on Romans 1.16 have expounded on God’s power, predestination, sovereignty, and His mighty works. As vital as these themes are, they do not constitute preaching the gospel of Christ Jesus. “The power of God unto salvation” could be applied to election, predestination, or even the omniscience of Jesus, as in the case of Zacchaeus in Luke 19: “…And when Jesus came to the place, he looked up, and saw him, and said unto him, Zacchaeus, make haste, and come down…And Jesus said unto him, This day is salvation come to this house….”. Such is part of the gospel account, but it is not the gospel. The gospel’s being “the power of God unto salvation” describes the gospel, then, but it does not define it.
When people say that “the gospel is the power of God unto salvation,” multitudes, because they have been mistakenly led to believe it so, think that this phrase means that the power is in the proclaimed message of the gospel. Neither Christ, Paul, nor any other apostle implied such a thing.
Most worldly religionists seem to think of “gospel preaching” as being like a salesman’s pitch: The used car salesman tells the virtues of a car and the benefits of owning it. He invites you to try it and buy it; and, hoping you will do so, he then must leave it up to you. Religionists think of the gospel preacher and his message in a similar manner. They in effect say, “The preacher is one who tells the virtues of Christ and the benefits of believing on Him, he invites you to accept Him, and, hoping that you will do so, he must leave it up to you.” Nothing could be much farther from Scriptural truth.
An automobile is one thing, but a used-car salesman’s patter about it is quite something else. If the message were really what gets the job done, everyone who has heard a car salesman’s yarn would be driving in style. Now, we know that this is a natural example, and the gospel is spiritual, as some will be quick to point out to us; but we mention this because multitudes of “evangelical Christians” see no difference between the natural and the spiritual. That is part of the problem mentioned earlier.
Lest anyone think this is an exaggeration, I’m more than happy to share the following quote from someone who knows all about making merchandise of the souls of men:
Evangelist Billy Graham is as much an American Institution as the stars and stripes…In his crusade to spread the gospel, he’s used nearly every technique known to Madison Avenue.
Says Graham: “We are selling the greatest product on earth. Why shouldn’t we promote it as effectively as we promote a bar of soap?”
—Dallas Times Herald, April 9, 1963, page 4 (From a Saturday Evening Post advertisement promoting a featured article on Mr. Graham in their then current issue.)
The gospel is a set of specific, witnessed, documented, historic facts. It is neither the preaching of those facts nor the preaching about those facts. True, a gospel preacher identifies and describes those facts, but his preaching is not the same thing as the gospel facts he is describing.
The facts of the gospel, what Christ hath done, are what have accomplished the salvation of God’s people. It is not the proclaiming of those facts as “the gospel message.” It is not as if the work of Christ is “one thing” and the preaching is “the other,” in the standard Arminian sense, “Christ has done His part, but we must do ours.” No, none of that! Regardless of what anyone says or does not say about it, Christ’s gospel is what He did, His finished work, period.
Wars have been won, and treaties have been signed, sometimes weeks and months before the soldiers in outposts, or their folks at home, found out the good news. It was an accomplished fact, freedom for a people had been won, sealed in the blood of the dead and the wounded, whether or not some of the participants and beneficiaries, for a time, had heard the blessed news. The hearing of the message, and for that matter, the believing or disbelieving of what one has heard, neither adds to nor takes away from the facts underlying the message. This is true whether it is a message of a war’s ending in victory or the message of the gospel of the Lord Jesus Christ’s having won the victory.
The gospel as actually defined in our text is the death, burial, and resurrection of Jesus Christ, and why He died, and how: how that Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures; and that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the Scriptures.
Paul declared the gospel in this letter to the church at Corinth. He declared the gospel to be the death, burial, and resurrection of Jesus Christ, for “our” sins (whoever these “our” are, they plainly must include Paul, or else he could not say “our”); and all of that must be according to the Scriptures. Those facts alone, what Christ has done, constitute the gospel. There is a vital distinction between the gospel and the proclamation of it. The two are as different as life and talking about life, or death and talking about death.
Paul said he had previously received it. He says how he received it: “For I neither received it of man, neither was I taught it, but by the revelation of Jesus Christ (Galatians 1.12).”
“But when it pleased God, who separated me from my mother’s womb, and called me by his grace, to reveal his Son in me, that I might preach him among the heathen; immediately I conferred not with flesh and blood (Galatians 1.15f).”
God revealed His Son in Paul (or Saul) on the Damascene Road. He did not put His Son in him then. And Saul of Tarsus did not immediately seek out an apostle or a preacher who could explain the gospel to him.
Saul was already a brother, before he was baptized, when he first met with Ananias, who said, “Brother Saul, the Lord, even Jesus, that appeared unto thee in the way as thou camest, hath sent me, that thou mightest receive thy sight, and be filled with the Holy Ghost (Acts 9.17).” That statement alone dispells the baptismal regeneration error.
Prior to his writing 1 Corinthians to them, Paul had already preached the gospel unto the church in Corinth. They had previously received it. Steeped as the church at Corinth was in Greek philosophy, man’s wisdom was worth nothing to Paul or to the Corinthian church (See 1 Corinthians, the first two chapters). Paul said, “And I, brethren, when I came to you, came not with excellency of speech or of wisdom, declaring unto you the testimony of God.” The testimony of God was the Old Testament.
“For I determined not to know any thing among you, save Jesus Christ, and Him crucified.” That is the center of the gospel Paul preached.
“And I was with you in weakness, and in fear, and in much trembling. And my speech and my preaching was not with enticing words of man’s wisdom, but in demonstration of the Spirit and of power: that your faith should not stand in the wisdom of men, but in the power of God.” In chapter 1 he had already defined “the power of God” as being Christ Himself (1.24).
Their standing, Paul says, is in Christ. That means their legal standing was innocent and justified before God. All who are in Christ stand before God’s judgment bar legally as innocent, just, and pure as Jesus Christ their head.
Those who are saved are saved by the gospel itself; i.e., they are saved by the death, burial, and resurrection of Christ. That is the only “gospel salvation” there is. Hearing the gospel preached is the best “good news” sinners will ever hear in this life, but they are neither saved nor regenerated by merely hearing about it. The message of a work accomplished always arrives after the fact. It is finished.

C.C. Morris
Link : http://www.the-remnant.com/thegospel.htm
 
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heymikey80

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Neal said:
It is obvious that the measure of human responsibility varies in different cases, and is greater or less with particular individuals. The standard of measurement was given in the Saviour’s words, "For unto whomsoever much is given, of him shall much be required" (Luke 12:48). Surely God did not require as much from those living in Old Testament times as He does from those who have been born during the Christian dispensation. Surely God will not require as much from those who lived during the ‘dark ages,’ when the Scriptures were accessible to but a few, as He will from those of this generation, when practically every family in the land own a copy of His Word for themselves. In the same way, God will not demand from the heathen what He will from those in Christendom. The heathen will not perish because they have not believed in Christ, but because they failed to live up to the light which they did have—the testimony of God in nature and conscience.
====================

Of particular interest in this particular passage in this particular book is the particular part I have particularly bolded. Is this....... right?
Hm, I think it's just that the sentence structure is ambiguous. I read it this way, and that's sensible to me:

"[It's not that] people will perish because they have not believed in Christ, but [people will perish] because they failed to live up to the light which they did have -- the testimony of God in nature and conscience."

The causes of people perishing are different from the Cause of people being saved. People who would otherwise perish under the light they have under everything but Christ are yet still saved by faith in Christ.

I don't know if it's true, but his view is in range of Reformed thought. On moral terms all people are found wanting, and fail the light they have. On gracious terms some are saved.

Something would cause me to qualify this kind of thinking, though. Paul's saying, "those who don't have the Law perish apart from it" (think it's somewhere in Rom 2, or is it 5?). So the "light that they have" judgement I have some questions about. Ultimately our penalty is always death "in that all sinned", whether we're under the Law or outlaws.

I think there is some sense of "faith according to our light", too. Israel's faith B.C. and the father's faith as well wouldn't make much sense to me without it.
 
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nill

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UMP,

> Yes,
> I understand what you are saying. As a matter of fact, we just had
> an in debth discussion, not too long ago on exaclty your concerns.
> http://www.christianforums.com/t2958585-question.html

Thank you for that thread--I read the whole thing, and I came across some statements with which I would whole-heartedly agree, such as this one:

> God has ordained ordinary means of salvation, certainly. But God
> has never been constrained to ordinary means.

I agree, because I believe it allows God to work as He will within the hearts of people whom He has elected unto salvation. There's no reason to believe that God limits salvation to those who have Bibles. But! While I believe that God is not constrained by those ordinary means--and He sometimes uses extraordinary means--I still have to ask, "Ordinary means what?" Ordinary means by which men are saved--isn't that right? For instance, "And without faith it is impossible to please him, for whoever would draw near to God must believe that he exists and that he rewards those who seek him" (Heb 11:6). So, isn't it that some people can be ordinarily saved, some also extraordinarily saved, but all "by grace you have been saved through faith" (Eph 2:8). In what are we to have faith? I always thought that though people are brought by different means, it was always to the same end: faith in Jesus Christ, and that couldn't be bypassed in any manner. It's not like I could explain that--how "infants and idiots" could have faith in Christ, but I don't see how God could decree faith in Christ as necessary for salvation for some but not for others. Do you get what I'm saying?
 
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UMP

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Neal said:
I always thought that though people are brought by different means, it was always to the same end: faith in Jesus Christ, and that couldn't be bypassed in any manner. It's not like I could explain that--how "infants and idiots" could have faith in Christ, but I don't see how God could decree faith in Christ as necessary for salvation for some but not for others. Do you get what I'm saying?

Yes,
I know what you are saying. However, what I am saying is that God's arm is not shortened that it cannot save. (Isaiah 59:1)
Who am I to say that God cannot place "faith in Christ" in the heart of a man, idiot, baby, who has never audibly heard?
This might also be a great read for you:
http://www.spurgeon.org/sermons/0411.htm
 
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nill

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Wait a minute... I don't think my question was answered, or at least I didn't see the answer... this part: "The heathen will not perish because they have not believed in Christ"--I thought it was, of course, because they do not believe in Christ that they perish--because morally they reject Him...? Ack, I dunno... I have to read that chapter again.
 
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UMP

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Neal said:
Wait a minute... I don't think my question was answered, or at least I didn't see the answer... this part: "The heathen will not perish because they have not believed in Christ"--I thought it was, of course, because they do not believe in Christ that they perish--because morally they reject Him...? Ack, I dunno... I have to read that chapter again.

I know, I think my answer confused me too. :)

This verse might answer the question, in reverse:

Romans 10:
[14] How then shall they call on him in whom they have not believed? and how shall they believe in him of whom they have not heard? and how shall they hear without a preacher?
 
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heymikey80

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Neal said:
Wait a minute... I don't think my question was answered, or at least I didn't see the answer... this part: "The heathen will not perish because they have not believed in Christ"--I thought it was, of course, because they do not believe in Christ that they perish--because morally they reject Him...? Ack, I dunno... I have to read that chapter again.
But wouldn't that include us all? None of us morally accepts Jesus to the point He should be accepted. So all of us morally reject Jesus to an extent that is condemnable.

I think what you're seeing is that there's an imperitive to accept Christ, and I'd agree there. I think though that it's not the first reason God condemns people. He says He condemns people because the Law condemns them; because we don't will, think, say, and do what the Law commends.

Because it's true of us as well as them, God's grace to us is still assuredly grace -- favor without merit.

How this actually applied in context, I don't really know! So ... just a suggestion that maybe he's trying to tackle this subtlety?:sorry:
 
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