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Not only can you not answer Moses, but you're reduced to speculation that is clearly contrary to Scripture.Do you know what "righteous judgments" mean? The other nations already had the law; they knew it was sinful to murder or steal, but did they judge the jews righteously when they dwelt in Egypt? Your theories lack much practice; you must read the scriptures while shining the light of torah.
You will find in in chapter 8 where the term is introduced.Perhaps I missed it, but I don't see the word covenant ANYWHERE in the verse you quote at the end there. Definitely not in the Greek.
Not only can you not answer Moses, but you're reduced to speculation that is clearly contrary to Scripture.
Not only can you not answer Moses, but you're reduced to speculation that is clearly contrary to Scripture.
The simple truth is that you don't accept Scripture, and have to blather on about nonsense to justify your rejection of Holy Writ. Who took away the covenant from Mount Sinai?You dont understand the simple truth, that the commandments given at Mt Sinai were not the FIRST covenant, there were covenants before Mt Sinai; like the sign of circumcision given to Abraham REPEATED within the laws Moses gave to Israel; the holy commandments given at Mt Sinai were a CONTINUATION of the covenant given to Israel's grandfather Abraham. You do not know what was taken away, then you want me to answer you, who took it away? A thief that steals, WHAT was stolen determines whether that man is indeed a theif. If what the theif took already belonged to him, then that man is innocent; he is not a theif! "Thou shall not steal"....
Each of your statements ends with a question mark. Can you answer Moses' question?Where there Gentiles, foreigners and strangers present when God spoke on Mt. Sinai?
Did Gentiles, foreigners, strangers and Egyptians also enter into covenant with the God of Israel at Sinai?
Repent of what? Acknowledging God's righteous judgment, that you can't seem to reconcile your posts with?RIGHTEOUS JUDGMENTS are contrary to scripture? Now I know, you want to be right, you seek to establish your own righteousness that can not be clearly explained; you do not have a "willingness to be wrong" so that you may repent.
Repent of what? Acknowledging God's righteous judgment, that you can't seem to reconcile your posts with?
John 1:17 is a statement of contrast and not a statement of equals.John 1:17 DOES NOT say that of Jesus. For the law was given by Moses, but grace and truth came by Jesus Christ. How does that say that Jesus did not teach the law? How does that compare with the fact that Jesus said He did not come to change the law?
How does Jesus teach His own commandments? Is His commandments different from that of His Father's? You would hold that view after Jesus Himself said that He and His Father are one? After Jesus said that if you see Him you see the Father? The point is that the Holy Spirit, the son and the Father work under the same principles so how can Jesus now have different rules than that of the father? Even Paul confirms the oneness of operation.
Cor. 5:19 To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation.
Its not a matter of contradiction but one of replacement as God promised through His prophets. But you don't believe that either.Did the Father contradict His own Commandments as Jesus did all that He did in His father will? John 5:30 I can of mine own self do nothing: as I hear, I judge: and my judgment is just; because I seek not mine own will, but the will of the Father which hath sent me.
So you make Paul a contradictory fool. What's new? You must prove Paul is a total jerk to promote your doctrine. So far its very unsuccessful except in your own mind. No one like to be wrong or admit such.The law says that we should have no other God! Are you saying that according to Paul we are deliver from that law? Did not Paul say Do we then make void the law through faith? God forbid: yea, we establish the law. Romans 3:31. How can Paul mean that there is no law for us and yet say that we establish the law? Would it not make sense to understand Paul as meaning that we are not under the condemnation of the law because we have Christ our salvation?
Matter of fact it is -Is it matter of choosing law over grace? Or having grace to Worship God alone? Grace to love your neighbour as yourself.
And its clear that Paul said Jesus is a priest. Who's your priest? If its not Jesus, you're not a Christian. This indeed changes the jots and tittles of the law. Therefore the law is fulfilled as LK 24:44 states and shows the full meaning of Mat 5:17-18.12 For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law. This have nothing to do with the Ten commandments. Heb. 8: Now of the things which we have spoken this is the sum: We have such an high priest, who is set on the right hand of the throne of the Majesty in the heavens; 2 A minister of the sanctuary, and of the true tabernacle, which the Lord pitched, and not man.
Paul makes it clear that he was talking about the priesthood. That Christ was not a Levi.
13 For he of whom these things are spoken pertaineth to another tribe, of which no man gave attendance at the altar.
14 For it is evident that our Lord sprang out of Juda; of which tribe Moses spake nothing concerning priesthood.
The simple truth is that you don't accept Scripture, and have to blather on about nonsense to justify your rejection of Holy Writ. Who took away the covenant from Mount Sinai?
Please answer the question.
I can not answer your question, because your answer assumes a falsehood as truth. Where it is EXACTLY written that he took away the covenant at Mt. Sinai?
Both of you have a problem on your hands. Neither of you can respond to the obvious reference of 'He' Who took away the first covenant, which is the one declared at Mount Sinai. Why is this?It's like me asking you "how do pigs fly?"
ANSWER THE QUESTION.
I must first prove to you that pigs fly.
Hebrews 10:9 says NOTHING about getting rid of a covenant.
Both of you have a problem on your hands. Neither of you can respond to the obvious reference of 'He' Who took away the first covenant, which is the one declared at Mount Sinai. Why is this?
VeryGen 2: 17 But of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, thou shalt not eat of it: for in the day that thou eatest thereof thou shalt surely die.
Grace prevented Adam and Eve from dying that day. Eternal death was theirs from that moment.
Grace prevented David's death at the time of His actions.
The bible said Noah found Grace. Genesis 6:8 8 But Noah found grace in the eyes of the Lord.
You want to try again or reject God word?
No, it doesn't say that - and I pointed out the translators recognition of capitalizing the pronoun 'He' for good reason. Use another translation if necessary to see this.See what you're doing there Victor...
The verse says "he took away the first to establish the second"....
You make two assumptions.
1. assume that the word covenant should be placed after the word first.
2. assume that the already assumed word covenant, is the covenant made at Mt. Sinai.
You are asking a question based on an assumption that is built upon another assumption, and expecting me to answer your 2x assumptive question.
Oh my. I'd get reported for posting the truth here. Therefore I shall restrain and refrain.Originally Posted by Elder 111 Dis you not read what Paul said in that respect? " law was ordained to life" Not me Paul, bible!
10 And the commandment, which was ordained to life, I found to be unto death.
You make it sound like it is our own words it is not! God said it and I believe God!
Wait a minute!!! I quoted exactly what Paul said and I am perverting Paul's words?
There is perversion but look for the source again, because it is not originating with the word of God that I quoted!
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