- Feb 14, 2005
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No. Absolutely no. OUTRAGEOUSLY no.
The Bible is NOT always "consistent" in its terminology---for many reasons. Including the fact that the OT is Hebrew/Aramaic and the NT is Greek! And there's so many other reasons that I am tempted to ask if you are kidding.
Nope, not kidding. One of the reasons I believe the Bible is inspired is for this very reason. Even though it was written by over 40 authors (more if you count the individual Genesis authors), spanning 3 continents, and spanning 4000 years (again, if you count the individual Genesis authors), it's remarkably consistent in its concepts and terminology.
Your "theory" reminds me of a Christian businessman fellow with major foundation money back in the 1980's who was intent on publishing a theological lexicon of the Bible where he was DETERMINED to show that every word/term/phrase in the Bible had one CONSISTENT, primary meaning.
I can tell you've misunderstood. Terms can have several meanings depending on context and usage. And when we look at terms in context, they are remarkably consistent throughout the bible. I think you got excited (understatement) and jumped to a wrong conclusion.
Your analogy here fell short very quickly. My suggestion is to engage a little first before getting into a frenzied reply. You just wasted all that time typing an illustration that didn't apply.
No. For example, semitic terminology is very different from Hellenistic terminology.
It's a different language, but as one of my bible professors said, while the NT authors wrote in Greek, they thought in Hebrew.
And you'll find this to be the precise case. These authors were very familiar with the old testament and knew what its terms meant. It would only make sense they would use corresponding terms to the best of their ability.
Have you noticed that your "rule" of hermeneutics is not found in any seminary textbook? Ever wonder why?
Well I think you're referring to your dreadful example above, and yes, I would imagine that straw man is not found in any serious texts.
What a huge (and, frankly, deceptive) logical leap of your own! It is only slightly less audacious than "If you don't agree with me, you are rejecting the Bible." [which is a constant refrain of far too many young earth creationists on the Creation-Evolution forum.]
Well the problem is, you didn't understand it. You see, there are a lot of formally educated individuals that honestly can't think themselves out of a box. If you did spend money on seminary, I'd consider looking into a refund.
I'm curious: How much grad level training in exegesis do you have? Have you any experience with Bible translation work? The "rule" is so outrageously naive that I seriously doubt that you've ever "tested it" on anyone with a solid background in Biblical studies.
Well you're still stuck on that straw man rule you attributed to me, and unfortunately have wasted a lot of time.
Now, I didn't got to seminary, and frankly I'm proud of that. I have been to quite a few bible classes, and have studied under some amazing mentors for the last 20 years. Now there are some good men out there that have utilized the seminary path, and some good men that haven't. And there are some absolute morons with seminary degrees that just aren't cut out for theology at all. Looking at your reasonings skills.......
Do I really need to list the DOZENS of Biblical examples that absolutely blow your "consistency theory" out of the water? The claim is so absurd that I'll get by with just one: "Son of man." Now, while keeping a straight face, demonstrate to us that throughout the Bible that it only has ONE CONSISTENT MEANING. (After all, you said that if it does NOT have just one consistent meaning, the Bible is hopelessly illogical---according to you.)
Oh absolutely. Glad you asked. Boy you seem uptight, btw. I'll start a new thread on this shortly. But yes terminology is consistent in both testaments and I will use this term, "son of man" to demonstrate this.
If you think about it though, why would the jewish authors of the new testament deviate from the basic understanding of this term? Certainly the understood the term in the O.T. Do you really believe they're going to just pull it out of thin air and change the meaning?
[Yes, I will freely admit that my rebuttal---to the rebuke you wrote against my remarks--- is harsh. ...
Well not just that, it was oozing with pride. You see, unfortunately that's often what a seminar education and result it. Not always. But I see it a lot. "How dare you argue with me! Don't you know I went to seminary!!?" Most of your seminary professors would cringe if they knew you were wielding your degree this way.
Frankly it's childish. The Bereans weren't seminarians, yet were nobel for checking Paul's words (a very educated man) against the old testament. And you'll notice Luke wasn't beside himself over their audacity.
I don't have the formal education you have, but I've been at this this for a long time and am utilizing the best tools out there, and am already noticing I could teach you a thing or two. Sorry if that sounds overconfident, but I say it with conviction.
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