I don't think you intented to agree with my statement so unequivocally. I believe that is exactly what the Bible teaches, but I don't believe you do. I stated, "The actions of these two representative men were not potential but actual." By that I mean, that just as the actions of Adam guaranteed the condemnation of all he represented; the actions of Christ guaranteed the justification and final glorification of all he represented. This occurred when they acted, not after those represented were born. You can't believe what you claim and believe that. If Jesus represented ALL MEN [that would be all in Adam] then all men would be justified. Jesus represented all in him, not all without exception.
"Limited Atonement" implies that Jesus has not dealt with ALL sin.
Either Jesus is Lord or he is not.
If Jesus has NOT dealt with ALL of the sins of humanity then he is not Lord. A Lord is one that has complete control over his domain." Pate
Here you are commenting against Calvinism and you don't even understand it. Perhaps you should study a bit before you comment further. The sufficiency of Christ's death is not the issue. The real issue is what you have denied, i.e., the absolute effectiveness of Jesus' death for all he intended to redeem. As Boetner stated [paraphrased], "For the Arminian, Christ's redemption is like a great, wide bridge that only goes half way across the chasm; For the Calvinist, it is a narrow bridge that goes all the way across." For you, it is a redemption that doesn't redeem, a propitiation that doesn't propitiate, a justification that doesn't justify, and a reconciliation that doesn't reconcile. "Jesus did his best, but mean ole sinners just wouldn't cooperate." Poor Jesus! And you think that glorifies God?
Adam was created as a free agent.
The Garden of Eden was his domain. If he would have asked God would have removed the serpent. But he didn't. He allowed the serpent to tempt Eve that led to his own down fall.
By Adam's own free will he sinned against God.
The scripture says that the angels in heaven rejoice over one sinner that repents and turns to Christ by their own free will.
The scripture says that "the angels in heaven rejoice over one sinner that repents"
Robert Pate adds "and turns to Christ by their own free will."
WORD FOR THE DAY: eisegesis
If Jesus satisfied God's wrath for all of humanity, how is it that God's wrath is coming on the sons of disobedience?
"3 But sexual immorality and all impurity or covetousness must not even be named among you, as is proper among saints.
4 Let there be no filthiness nor foolish talk nor crude joking, which are out of place, but instead let there be thanksgiving.
5 For you may be sure of this, that everyone who is sexually immoral or impure, or who is covetous (that is, an idolater), has no inheritance in the kingdom of Christ and God.
6 Let no one deceive you with empty words, for because of these things the wrath of God comes upon the sons of disobedience." The text does not say God's wrath is coming on them for unbelief, but because of "These Things." i.e., sexual immorality, impurity, coveteousness etc. If Jesus satisfied God's wrath for all those sins, how then can God's wrath come on them? Still waiting for that text that describes Jesus' work as "POTENTIAL." Every place in my Bible his work is described it is spoken of as an accomplishment.
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