K
kristina411
Guest
I'm sure its been done before but I wanted to touch on this subject.
I have heard different, and confusing, explanations of what exactly blasphemy of the holy spirit is. When I look in the NT I find it in both Matthew and Mark (Mark is currently my study book which is how I came about this post).
In both Jesus tells that blasphemy of the Holy Spirit is the only unpardonable sin. He says this after the scribes(according to Mark-Pharisees according to Matthew) accuse Him of using Beelzebub to cast out demons. So Jesus gives His speech on "A house divided cannot stand."
I like to read before and after verses so I can be aware of the situation. So we are in a situation where men of religious (worldly) authority are accusing Jesus of using evil to cast out demons. Jesus is explaining that it would be impossible.
So in Matthew 12:31-32 it says:
31 "Therefore I say to you, every sin and blasphemy will be forgiven men, but the blasphemy against the Spirit will not be forgiven men. 32 "Anyone who speaks a word against the Son of Man, it will be forgiven him; but whoever speaks against the Holy Spirit, it will not be forgiven him, either in this age or in the age to come."
In Mark we find it 3:28-30 it says:
28 Assuredly, I say to you, all sins will be forgiven the sons of men, and whatever blasphemies they may utter; 29 "but he who blasphemes against the Holy Spirit never has forgiveness, but is subject to eternal condemnation." - 30 because they said, "He has an unclean spirit."
Now what I put in bold is not like that in the bible but is used to show the huge differences in determining what exactly blasphemy of the Holy Spirit is. In Matthew we are told that blasphemy again the Son of Man (Jesus- and I'm confused by this but another post for another day) is forgivable, just not against the Holy Spirit. Now the Holy Spirit had not been sent down at this time.
But if you switch over to Mark, the sons of men will be forgiven for blasphemy. There is a huge difference (shows just how big of a difference two interpretations can make something). It appears as if Jesus is the one whom blasphemy against is unforgivable. Yes it says Holy Spirit but considering the trinity and considering the last verse provided in Mark says "because they said, "He has an unclean spirit." This appears as if Jesus was directing his words to the scribes/pharisees and they were the ones making offenses.
So considering The Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit are one, and blasphemy against the Holy Spirit is unforgivable, and they were speaking against the ones blaspheming against Jesus, we are to assume that all blasphemies against the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are unpardonable correct? This is my take on this. It did not say Father or the Son but in Mark it appears as if they are speaking of both Son and Holy Spirit and the Father would not be excluded correct? And if all 3 are 1, blasphemy against one would be blasphemy against all correct?
So in Matthew where we read blasphemy against the Son of Man will be forgiven we are to believe Matthew interpreted the meaning differently?
Ideas? Anything to support or discount this?
I have heard different, and confusing, explanations of what exactly blasphemy of the holy spirit is. When I look in the NT I find it in both Matthew and Mark (Mark is currently my study book which is how I came about this post).
In both Jesus tells that blasphemy of the Holy Spirit is the only unpardonable sin. He says this after the scribes(according to Mark-Pharisees according to Matthew) accuse Him of using Beelzebub to cast out demons. So Jesus gives His speech on "A house divided cannot stand."
I like to read before and after verses so I can be aware of the situation. So we are in a situation where men of religious (worldly) authority are accusing Jesus of using evil to cast out demons. Jesus is explaining that it would be impossible.
So in Matthew 12:31-32 it says:
31 "Therefore I say to you, every sin and blasphemy will be forgiven men, but the blasphemy against the Spirit will not be forgiven men. 32 "Anyone who speaks a word against the Son of Man, it will be forgiven him; but whoever speaks against the Holy Spirit, it will not be forgiven him, either in this age or in the age to come."
In Mark we find it 3:28-30 it says:
28 Assuredly, I say to you, all sins will be forgiven the sons of men, and whatever blasphemies they may utter; 29 "but he who blasphemes against the Holy Spirit never has forgiveness, but is subject to eternal condemnation." - 30 because they said, "He has an unclean spirit."
Now what I put in bold is not like that in the bible but is used to show the huge differences in determining what exactly blasphemy of the Holy Spirit is. In Matthew we are told that blasphemy again the Son of Man (Jesus- and I'm confused by this but another post for another day) is forgivable, just not against the Holy Spirit. Now the Holy Spirit had not been sent down at this time.
But if you switch over to Mark, the sons of men will be forgiven for blasphemy. There is a huge difference (shows just how big of a difference two interpretations can make something). It appears as if Jesus is the one whom blasphemy against is unforgivable. Yes it says Holy Spirit but considering the trinity and considering the last verse provided in Mark says "because they said, "He has an unclean spirit." This appears as if Jesus was directing his words to the scribes/pharisees and they were the ones making offenses.
So considering The Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit are one, and blasphemy against the Holy Spirit is unforgivable, and they were speaking against the ones blaspheming against Jesus, we are to assume that all blasphemies against the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are unpardonable correct? This is my take on this. It did not say Father or the Son but in Mark it appears as if they are speaking of both Son and Holy Spirit and the Father would not be excluded correct? And if all 3 are 1, blasphemy against one would be blasphemy against all correct?
So in Matthew where we read blasphemy against the Son of Man will be forgiven we are to believe Matthew interpreted the meaning differently?
Ideas? Anything to support or discount this?