That God is invisible does not mean that he can't make himself visible.
I wonder who it was that Stephen saw when he said that he saw Jesus at the right hand of God?
In vision was Jesus NEXT to God so he cannot be God!
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That God is invisible does not mean that he can't make himself visible.
I wonder who it was that Stephen saw when he said that he saw Jesus at the right hand of God?
First of all it is a VISION and VISIONS are usually symbolic . . . this is evidenced by WHERE Jesus is . . . He is at the position of Power and Authority . . . so making ANY other doctrinal conclusion beyond this is folly.In vision was Jesus NEXT to God so he cannot be God!
First of all it is a VISION and VISIONS are usually symbolic . . . this is evidenced by WHERE Jesus is . . . He is at the position of Power and Authority . . . so making ANY other doctrinal conclusion beyond this is folly.
Second, YOU COMPLETELY JUST DANCED AROUND THE POINT AND NEGLECTED WHAT WAS SHOWN TO YOU. Bad form. The point, is not anything about the deity of Christ . . . it IS about SEEING GOD. How can one "see" the right "hand" that Christ is "at" IS the point . . . for your contention speaks of NOT EVER SEEING GOD. Yet someone is seen to have a right hand to be stood at.
In vision was Jesus NEXT to God so he cannot be God!
I knew you would say that. I have a whole different understanding of what was going on in that passage and don't read the Bible quite as literally as you seem to.
But the deal is that you claim to take the Bible very literally and thus assert that when Jesus says the no man has ever seen God, or when Paul writes about the invisible God that it excludes any possibility of the very experiences of people like Jacob and Moses. I'm saying that you paint yourself into a corner with that way of interpreting things. I don't think the Bible contradicts itself, but if I was to hold to your interpretations it would contradict itself all over the place.
In a literalists understanding of scripture, Stephen saw God next to Jesus. In a literalist understanding of scripture God is invisible. You can't have it both ways. (Unless of course you are willing to give up your literalistic way of understanding.)
It was a VISION of God etc. etc..
So, you are saying that Stephen saw God, but that God is invisible.
vision n.
1 act or faculty of seeing, sight.
2 thing or person seen in a dream or trance.
3 mental picture (visions of hot toast).
4 imaginative insight. 5 statesmanlike foresight. 6 beautiful person etc. 7 television or cinema picture, esp. of specified quality (poor vision). [Latin video vis- see]
But Stephen, full of the Holy Spirit, looked up to heaven and saw the glory of God, and Jesus standing at the right hand of God. "Look," he said, "I see heaven open and the Son of Man standing at the right hand of God."
(Acts 7:55-56)
Do the scriptures say that this was a vision, or simply that he saw? Why do you suggest that this was a vision, when the scriptures don't say that it was a vision?
To see a God the says he cannot be seen, then I can only be in vision or God lies!
What about in the Garden . . . do you have any verses that state that God with Adam and Eve was through an angel? Cause Adam and Eve certainly saw God in the Garden . . . yet John says NO ONE AT ANY TIME HAS SEEN GOD . . . no one (oudeis) means NO ONE AT ANY TIME. So either YOUR concept of "seeing" is wrong . . . or we have a contradiction in the Bible.
Barry, you still haven't sufficiently addressed the fact that the Bible says that Moses saw God face to face as a man does a friend. As Mathetes says our chocies are that either your understanding of what the Bible means when it talks about the invisible God is actually a misunderstanding or the Bible is itself contradictory. If we assume that the Bible isn't wrong, then it must be your understanding of it that is in error.
The Bible says that God spoke with Moses "face to face, as with a friend"; that sure doesn't sound like a vision. Are you saying that the Bible is lying about what Moses experienced?
I stand corrected, you are capable of some nuanced discussion and do not take every verse literally. If you did, then Exodus 33:11 would stand in direct opposition to your beliefs: "The LORD would speak to Moses face to face, as a man speaks with his friend." But you are able to accept to contradictory passages by understanding them as being only contradictory on the surface.
I'm asking you to use that same reasoning ability when it comes to speaking of Jesus as the incarnate God. John 1 tells us that the Word was God (not A god) and that this Word became flesh and dwelt among us. John the Baptist identifies this Word in the flesh as Jesus. This doesn't mean that God isn't invisible in his basic nature as spirit, but just as he can appear in a vision without it being a violation of the larger concept, so too he can put on flesh.
I'm asking you to use that same reasoning ability when it comes to speaking of Jesus as the incarnate God. John 1 tells us that the Word was God (not A god) and that this Word became flesh and dwelt among us. John the Baptist identifies this Word in the flesh as Jesus. This doesn't mean that God isn't invisible in his basic nature as spirit, but just as he can appear in a vision without it being a violation of the larger concept, so too he can put on flesh.
To see a God that says he cannot be seen, then it can only be in vision or God lies!