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The Trinity Doctrine

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GraceSeeker

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I always called myself a Christian. I believe in God. I believe in Jesus. I believe in the Holy Spirit. I believe God is just that God...all good all powerful. I believe Jesus is the one and only son of God and died for our sins and lived to show us how to live. I believe the Holy Spirit guides us...kinda like our thoughts and morals. But I am not sure I believe in putting God into a trinity package and pretending to have it all figures out that the 3 are actually 1. I was told trinity is the base of Christianity and if I do not believe in trinity than I am not a Christian. I am no certain denomination as I believe they are all right in their own beliefs. I don't have a title because everytime I think I got a title someone informs me I'm not. I am a person who is loved by God, Jesus and the Holy Spirit and believes in the Bible 100%. I search for the truth according to God, Jesus, and the Holy Spirit not truth according to man and majority rules.
Love and God Bless you all...If anyone knows what I am let me know???


Messenger, I have no problem with what you have expressed. While I do think that Trinity is a wonderfully a great attempt at explaining aspects of the mysteries of an unfathomable God (much like Mathetes expressed above), I don't thinkg that one has to use that particular imagery to be a Christian. Those who say that you do are, in my opinion, being a little too dogmatic and missed that the purpose of the doctrine of the Trinity is to help people in their search for understanding God, not as a lithmus test to keep people away from God. If you accept the God revealed in the scriptures and you know God in and through Jesus Christ, then you may not use the same words I do to describe him, but you most certainly still worship the same God I serve.
 
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barryrob

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The question is what do the Scriptures teach.

There is ONE God

The Father is called God

The Son is called God

The Spirit is called God

Yet the three operate as distinct in person

The various attempts at a formulation that reconciles all these in an orthodox manner is called Trinity.

I don't buy many of the explanations . . . but I do affirm the Scriptures.

There is ONE God who is Three in Person . . .



Show me where the spirit is called Almighty God in the Bible?

And the same for Jesus?
 
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GraceSeeker

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Show me where the spirit is called Almighty God in the Bible?

And the same for Jesus?

For Jesus just check out Revelation 1:9. Based on Revelation 1:12-18 we know that the one speaking to John is Jesus. This one is given several titles, among them "the First and the Last" (1:17). This one who is given the title "the First and the Last" is also given the title "the Alpha and Omega" (22:13). So, let's be clear, the following are all titles given to Jesus:
"the Alpha and the Omega"
"the First and the Last"
"the Beginning and the End"
Then in Revelation 1:9 the same person is speaking who was speaking to John in 1:12-18 and we read:
"I am the Alpha and the Omega," says the Lord God, "who is, and who was, and who is to come, the Almighty."

That's about as clear as it can get, unless of course you have your mind closed and desire to make it into something else because your theology is set on something else regardless what the scriptures themselves say.
 
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barryrob

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For Jesus just check out Revelation 1:9. Based on Revelation 1:12-18 we know that the one speaking to John is Jesus. This one is given several titles, among them "the First and the Last" (1:17). This one who is given the title "the First and the Last" is also given the title "the Alpha and Omega" (22:13). So, let's be clear, the following are all titles given to Jesus:
"the Alpha and the Omega"
"the First and the Last"
"the Beginning and the End"
Then in Revelation 1:9 the same person is speaking who was speaking to John in 1:12-18 and we read:


That's about as clear as it can get, unless of course you have your mind closed and desire to make it into something else because your theology is set on something else regardless what the scriptures themselves say.

Revelation 1:8
“I am the Alpha and the O·mega,” says Jehovah God, “the One who is and who was and who is coming, the Almighty.”

To whom does this title properly belong?

1) At Revelation 1:8, its owner is said to be God, the Almighty. In verse 11 according to KJ, that title is applied to one whose description thereafter shows him to be Jesus Christ. But scholars recognize the reference to Alpha and Omega in verse 11 to be spurious, and so it does not appear in RS, NE, JB, NAB, Dy.

2) Many translations of Revelation into Hebrew recognize that the one described in verse 8 is Jehovah, and so they restore the personal name of God there.

3) Revelation 21:6, 7 indicates that Christians who are spiritual conquerors are to be ‘sons’ of the one known as the Alpha and the Omega. That is never said of the relationship of spirit-anointed Christians to Jesus Christ. Jesus spoke of them as his ‘brothers.’ (Heb. 2:11; Matt. 12:50; 25:40) But those ‘brothers’ of Jesus are referred to as “sons of God.” (Gal. 3:26; 4:6)

4) At Revelation 22:12, TEV inserts the name Jesus, so the reference to Alpha and Omega in verse 13 is made to appear to apply to him. But the name Jesus does not appear there in Greek, and other translations do not include it.

5) At Revelation 22:13, the Alpha and Omega is also said to be “the first and the last,” which expression is applied to Jesus at Revelation 1:17, 18. Similarly, the expression “apostle” is applied both to Jesus Christ and to certain ones of his followers. But that does not prove that they are the same person or are of equal rank, does it? (Heb. 3:1) So the evidence points to the conclusion that the title “Alpha and Omega” applies to Almighty God, the Father, not to the Son.
 
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GraceSeeker

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I've got out my Greek Bible(United Bible Societies publishers, edited by Kurt Aland, Matthew Black, Carlo Martini, Bruce Metzger, and Allen Wikgren), and I find that much that you write about as being in the KJV or other translations, the comments of (unnamed) scholars, just isn't supported by the text in front of me.

Revelation 1:8
“I am the Alpha and the O·mega,” says Jehovah God, “the One who is and who was and who is coming, the Almighty.”
The actual line is: εγω ειμι το αλφα και το ω λεγει κυριος ο θεος ο ων και ο ην και ο ερχομενος ο παντοκρατωρ
kurios is Lord, not Jehovah. Any translation that inserts Jehovah here ought to be suspect from the beginning.

To whom does this title properly belong?

1) At Revelation 1:8, its owner is said to be God, the Almighty. In verse 11 according to KJ, that title is applied to one whose description thereafter shows him to be Jesus Christ. But scholars recognize the reference to Alpha and Omega in verse 11 to be spurious, and so it does not appear in RS, NE, JB, NAB, Dy.

Again, looking at the actual text, and looking at a critical apparatus for the passage, what one actually sees is that with regard to 1:8 the Textus Receptus (following Sinaticus and twenty other miniscules) had both the reference to the Alpha and the Omega and adds "the beginning and the end". Indeed that added portion is considered by scholars (namely those I cited above) to be a later variant as a result of a copyist's expanding the text (probably prompted by 21:6). None of the commentaries I have, such as Interpreters and the Expositor's Bible Commentary (both well respected in academic circles) mention any problems with this portion of the text. Further, it must be emphasized that all extant copies INCLUDE the portion about the Alpha and the Omega. That part is NOT spurious; it is original.

As for your references to Alpha and Omega not being in verse 1:11, I never said anything about 1:11 in my entire post. Your comment is entirely irrelevant to what I was showing you.


2) Many translations of Revelation into Hebrew recognize that the one described in verse 8 is Jehovah, and so they restore the personal name of God there.
How many translations are there of Revelation into Hebrew? Incredibly few I would guess. And what bearing do they have on the discussion? The translation of Revelation into Hebrew is no more meaningful than it's translation into German, Russian, or Pig Latin. Plus, as Jehovah is not a Hebrew word, any Hebrew version that translate a Greek word that is clearly kurios into a an English word (for that is what Jehovah is) for inclusion in a Hebrew Bible, again must be seriously suspect. There are perfectly good Hebrew words for kurios, most notably adon or adonay, and neither of these are the personal name of God.

3) Revelation 21:6, 7 indicates that Christians who are spiritual conquerors are to be ‘sons’ of the one known as the Alpha and the Omega. That is never said of the relationship of spirit-anointed Christians to Jesus Christ. Jesus spoke of them as his ‘brothers.’ (Heb. 2:11; Matt. 12:50; 25:40) But those ‘brothers’ of Jesus are referred to as “sons of God.” (Gal. 3:26; 4:6)
Unless of course, as I would submit, that the Father and the Son are one, just as Jesus stated in John 10:30 and John 17:11, then it would make perfect sense to speak this way for speaking of Jesus is speaking of God.

4) At Revelation 22:12, TEV inserts the name Jesus, so the reference to Alpha and Omega in verse 13 is made to appear to apply to him. But the name Jesus does not appear there in Greek, and other translations do not include it.
What does 22:12 have to do with the price of tea in China? I never referenced it. Nor do I care one wit what the TEV says, I was reading from the NIV when pointing verses out to you. The important thing in 22:13 is to note that the one given the title "First and Last" is also the one to whom the title "Alpha and Omega" is given.

5) At Revelation 22:13, the Alpha and Omega is also said to be “the first and the last,” which expression is applied to Jesus at Revelation 1:17, 18. Similarly, the expression “apostle” is applied both to Jesus Christ and to certain ones of his followers. But that does not prove that they are the same person or are of equal rank, does it? (Heb. 3:1) So the evidence points to the conclusion that the title “Alpha and Omega” applies to Almighty God, the Father, not to the Son.
So, are you suggesting that the titles "the First and Last" and "the Alpha and Omega" apply to both God the Father and to the Son? Clearly Jesus is called that title in Revelation 22 (and I believe it is just as clear he is called that title in Revelation 1). That would then mean at least conceding that Jesus is from before the beginning of the world till after its conclusion. As far as the passage from Hebrews, the general meaning of apostlos is one who is sent with a message, this certainly can apply to many people and in the context of the discussion in Hebrews is perfectly appropriate to Jesus. And while some designations such as apostle can therefore be applied to Jesus in one since and to Peter or James or even a bike messenger in other situations, some titles cannot be shared. The term "the First and the Last" strikes me as one of them, especially with the use of the definite article. With the definite article there is one specific one that fits the description. None of the other apostles are apostles (messengers) whom we confess, only Christ is -- hence the definite article in Hebrews 3:1. And likewise there is only one who is "the First and the Last" in Revelation 22:13. That one is also "the Alpha and the Omega". But again you see the definite article meaning that there is only one. And when we check out who that one is, well, we are told in Revelation 1:17-18 that that one is the Living One who was dead and behold is alive for ever and even (i.e. none other than Jesus) and then at the same time told in Revelation 1:8 that that one is the Lord God, who is and who was, and who is to come, the Almighty. Hence Jesus is the Almighty.

Like I already said: That's about as clear as it can get, unless of course you have your mind closed and desire to make it into something else because your theology is set on something else regardless what the scriptures themselves say.
 
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barryrob

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I always called myself a Christian. I believe in God. I believe in Jesus. I believe in the Holy Spirit. I believe God is just that God...all good all powerful. I believe Jesus is the one and only son of God and died for our sins and lived to show us how to live. I believe the Holy Spirit guides us...kinda like our thoughts and morals. But I am not sure I believe in putting God into a trinity package and pretending to have it all figures out that the 3 are actually 1. I was told trinity is the base of Christianity and if I do not believe in trinity than I am not a Christian. I am no certain denomination as I believe they are all right in their own beliefs. I don't have a title because everytime I think I got a title someone informs me I'm not. I am a person who is loved by God, Jesus and the Holy Spirit and believes in the Bible 100%. I search for the truth according to God, Jesus, and the Holy Spirit not truth according to man and majority rules.
Love and God Bless you all...If anyone knows what I am let me know???




“The Holy Spirit is a "Person":

It is important to make clear that the Holy Spirit is not a force, or a thing, or a power… he is a "person". He is not an impersonal force like magnetism or gravity, he is a real person. In the Bible he is always "he", never "it"… he sanctifies us, he teaches us, guide us, instructs us, he illuminates us, he is the helper, the consoler, the educator… (Jn.14:26, 16-17, 15:26, 16:7-8, 12-14).”-http://www.religion-cults.com/spirit/person.htm#The%20Holy%20spirit%20is%20a%20"person":



SO SAY CHRISTENDOM’S CHURCHES THAT BELIEVE IN THE TRINITY!

BUT WHAT DOES THE BIBLE SAY?

THIS WEEK BIBLE READING FROM THE GOOD NEWS ACCORDING TO JOHN PROVIDES THE ANSWER.

John 14:16-17 “and I will request the Father and he will give YOU another helper to be with YOU forever, 17 the spirit* of the truth, which the world cannot receive, because it neither beholds it** (Gk. “auto”) nor knows it** (Gk. “auto”). YOU know it** , because it** remains with YOU and is in YOU.

** “auto” = Neuter

John 16:7-8 Nevertheless, I am telling YOU the truth, It is for YOUR benefit I am going away. For if I do not go away, the helper will by no means come to YOU; but if I do go my way, I will send him to YOU. 8 And when that one arrives he will give the world convincing evidence concerning sin and concerning righteousness and concerning judgment:

John 16:13 However, when that one arrives, the spirit of the truth, he will guide YOU into all the truth, for he will not speak of his own impulse, but what things hehears he will speak, and he will declare to YOU the things coming.


John 16:12-13 “I have many things yet to say to YOU, but YOU are not able to bear them at present. 13 However, when that one arrives, the spirit of the truth, he will guide YOU into all the truth, for he will not speak of his own impulse, but what things hehears he will speak, and he will declare to YOU the things coming.


“He” is to conform to the rules of Greek Grammar!


RUAH - 'Spirit' in Hebrew

Churches say that the holy spirit is a person, because at John 14:16 parakleton (helper) is in the masculine gender and the spirit is addressed as he, ( he will give) so referring to the grammar of the Greek the holy spirit must be a person, male in gender. If this is true then referring to the Hebrew word that is translated, 'spirit' is 'RUAH' is in the feminine gender this would mean that by using the same kind of rule, the holy spirit is female in gender, a she and not a he or both thus effecting our view of God as being hermaphroditic? This cannot be the case as seen above. The Hebrew word, Ruah, wind , breath , mind , spirit this noun occurs 387 times in the O.T., usually feminine. In the Greek Septuagint O.T. (LXX) pneuma,is Neuter .



SOMETHING else to consider?

If the holy spirit is a person and God, how could this person take on the from of a bird a Dove at the Baptism of Jesus in the river Jordan?

Mtt. 3:16 “After being baptised Jesus immediately came up from the water; and, look! the heavens were opened up, and he saw descending like a dove God's spirit coming upon him.”

Mark 1:10 “And immediately on coming up out of the water he saw the heavens being parted, and, like a dove, the spirit coming down upon him…”

Luke 3:22 “…and the holy spirit in bodily shape like a dove came down upon him, and a voice came out of heaven: ...

John 1:32 “John also bore witness, saying: "I viewed the spirit coming down as a dove out of heaven, and it remained upon him.”

When the Bible condemns the likening of God to any living things, in the following Bible texts:-

Ex. 20:4 "You must not make for yourself a carved image or a form like anything that is in the heavens above or that is on the earth underneath or that is in the waters under the earth.”

Isa. 40:18“ And to whom can YOU people liken God, and what likeness can YOU put alongside him?”

Rom. 1:22-23 “Although asserting they were wise, they became foolish and turned the glory of the incorruptible God into something like the image of corruptible man and of birds and four-footed creatures and creeping things.”

Deut 4:15-20 “And YOU must take good care of YOUR souls, because YOU did not see any form on the day of Jehovah’s speaking to YOU in Ho´reb out of the middle of the fire, 16 that YOU may not act ruinously and may not really make for yourselves a carved image, the form of any symbol, the representation of male or female, 17 the representation of any beast that is in the earth, the representation of any winged bird that flies in the heavens,18 the representation of anything moving on the ground, the representation of any fish that is in the waters under the earth; 19 and that you may not raise your eyes to the heavens and indeed see the sun and the moon and the stars, all the army of the heavens, and actually get seduced and bow down to them and serve them, which Jehovah your God has apportioned to all the peoples under the whole heavens. 20 But YOU are the ones Jehovah took that he might bring YOU out of the iron furnace, out of Egypt*, to become a people of private ownership to him as at this day.

*Egyptians who worshiped birds!


How can God brake his own commandments and send himself in the shape of a "Bird", this would be hypocrisy?
 
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GraceSeeker

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What utter nonsense above!!


The Holy Spirit is called "he" in English only as an anachronism of our language. The Holy Spirit is called "he" for the same reason that we tend to call God "he". But God is in fact neither male nor female. Still we want a personal pronoun for God, not "it". If one was writing in Turkish, the personal pronoun would be "o", which is neither male nor female, meaning both s/he at the same time.

Why do we want a personal pronoun for the Holy Spirit? Why do we want a personal pronoun for God when he isn't a person? Answer the second question and you have answered the first.

And to suggest that because the scriptures speak of the Holy Spirit descending as a dove that we really think of the Holy Spirit in this way is even just more ridiculousness. As is using Exodus 20 to refute it. We didn't liken the Holy Spirit to a dove, John reports that this is what was observed. The Holy Spirit later appears as tongues of fire on the disciples, but we don't think that the Holy Spirit is fire either. And of course, no person is "creating" a graven image. These, just as God speaking to Moses from the burning bush are theophanies -- ways that God shows himself to us, but they are not actual incarnations of God. And if they were, nothing would be wrong with that, for again it is people who are commanded not to make any graven images and we aren't. It is go who is making these appearance and God has the freedom to show himself to us in anyway he desires. God is not restricted by Exodus 20, only we are.
 
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barryrob

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What utter nonsense above!!


The Holy Spirit is called "he" in English only as an anachronism of our language. The Holy Spirit is called "he" for the same reason that we tend to call God "he". But God is in fact neither male nor female. Still we want a personal pronoun for God, not "it". If one was writing in Turkish, the personal pronoun would be "o", which is neither male nor female, meaning both s/he at the same time.

Why do we want a personal pronoun for the Holy Spirit? Why do we want a personal pronoun for God when he isn't a person? Answer the second question and you have answered the first.

And to suggest that because the scriptures speak of the Holy Spirit descending as a dove that we really think of the Holy Spirit in this way is even just more ridiculousness. As is using Exodus 20 to refute it. We didn't liken the Holy Spirit to a dove, John reports that this is what was observed. The Holy Spirit later appears as tongues of fire on the disciples, but we don't think that the Holy Spirit is fire either. And of course, no person is "creating" a graven image. These, just as God speaking to Moses from the burning bush are theophanies -- ways that God shows himself to us, but they are not actual incarnations of God. And if they were, nothing would be wrong with that, for again it is people who are commanded not to make any graven images and we aren't. It is go who is making these appearance and God has the freedom to show himself to us in anyway he desires. God is not restricted by Exodus 20, only we are.

You cannot change what the Bible says!

Niether does God brake his own words!
 
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GraceSeeker

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You cannot change what the Bible says!
I'm not. But YOU ARE. You are reading into the text things that are not actually there. Show me any place in scripture that says that God the God who can appear in a burning bush, or a pillar of fire, or a cloud cannot appear as a dove or in human flesh.

Niether does God brake his own words!
God isn't breaking his own words. He had made covenant with us, and kept it. He has told us how we are to live in relationship to him. What he has bound himself to is to be our God, and whether in the person of the Father, Son, or Holy Spirit he has been, is, and will always be God.
 
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barryrob

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I'm not. But YOU ARE. You are reading into the text things that are not actually there. Show me any place in scripture that says that God the God who can appear in a burning bush, or a pillar of fire, or a cloud cannot appear as a dove or in human flesh.

God isn't breaking his own words. He had made covenant with us, and kept it. He has told us how we are to live in relationship to him. What he has bound himself to is to be our God, and whether in the person of the Father, Son, or Holy Spirit he has been, is, and will always be God.


The Bible says God is “ONE” and not 1+1+1=3

Deuteronomy 6:4
“Listen, O Israel: Jehovah our God is one Jehovah.

Jeremiah 32:18
the [true] God, the great One, the mighty One, Jehovah of armies being his name,

Mark 12:29
Jesus answered: “The first is, ‘Hear, O Israel, Jehovah our God is one Jehovah,

Joshua 22:22
“Divine One, God, Jehovah, Divine One, God, Jehovah,. .

1 Corinthians 8:6
there is actually to us one God the Father. .

Ephesians 4:5-6
one Lord, one faith, one baptism; 6 one God. .

1 Timothy 2:5
For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, a man, Christ Jesus,
 
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GraceSeeker

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You cannot change what the Bible says!

I'm not. But YOU ARE. You are reading into the text things that are not actually there. Show me any place in scripture that says that God the God who can appear in a burning bush, or a pillar of fire, or a cloud cannot appear as a dove or in human flesh.

Niether does God brake his own words!

God isn't breaking his own words. He had made covenant with us, and kept it. He has told us how we are to live in relationship to him. What he has bound himself to is to be our God, and whether in the person of the Father, Son, or Holy Spirit he has been, is, and will always be God.


The Bible says God is “ONE” and not 1+1+1=3

Deuteronomy 6:4
“Listen, O Israel: Jehovah our God is one Jehovah.

Jeremiah 32:18
the [true] God, the great One, the mighty One, Jehovah of armies being his name,

Mark 12:29
Jesus answered: “The first is, ‘Hear, O Israel, Jehovah our God is one Jehovah,

Joshua 22:22
“Divine One, God, Jehovah, Divine One, God, Jehovah,. .

1 Corinthians 8:6
there is actually to us one God the Father. .

Ephesians 4:5-6
one Lord, one faith, one baptism; 6 one God. .

1 Timothy 2:5
For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, a man, Christ Jesus,

You showed me nothing regarding the question I put to you. I repeat, show me any place in scripture that says that the God who can appear in a burning bush, or a pillar of fire, or a cloud cannot appear as a dove or in human flesh.

You also showed nothing new nor contrary to what I already believe. Those who properly understand God existing as a tripersonal being, still understand him to be just one being. I believe in just one God. I don't know why you try to express it as addition. It's not. If you have to use math, this would be a better statement as to what we mean by God--> 1x1x1=1.
 
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Mathetes the kerux

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Show me where the spirit is called Almighty God in the Bible?

And the same for Jesus?

M-kay. Hebrews 2 God calls Jesus the same name given to Himself . . . namely God . . . IOW, He equates Jesus with Himself.

John says Isaiah's view of YHWH was really Jesus.

Many passages in the NT quote the Spirit as the One speaking in the OT to texts that are ascribed to being spoken by YHWH.
 
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barryrob

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You showed me nothing regarding the question I put to you. I repeat, show me any place in scripture that says that the God who can appear in a burning bush, or a pillar of fire, or a cloud cannot appear as a dove or in human flesh.

You also showed nothing new nor contrary to what I already believe. Those who properly understand God existing as a tripersonal being, still understand him to be just one being. I believe in just one God. I don't know why you try to express it as addition. It's not. If you have to use math, this would be a better statement as to what we mean by God--> 1x1x1=1.


God did not appear in the burning bush an angel did and at Mt. Sinai on his behalf:-

Did Moses talk to Jehovah God in person?
Exodus Ch. 3
1 “And Moses became a shepherd of the flock of Jethro, the priest of Midian, whose son-in-law he was. While he was driving the flock to the west side of the wilderness, he came at length to the mountain of the [true] God, to Horeb. 2 Then Jehovah’s angel appeared to him in a flame of fire in the midst of a thornbush. As he kept looking, why, here the thornbush was burning with the fire and yet the thornbush was not consumed. 3 At this Moses said: “Let me just turn aside that I may inspect this great phenomenon, as to why the thornbush is not burnt up.” 4 When Jehovah saw that he turned aside to inspect, God at once called to him out of the midst of the thornbush and said: “Moses! Moses!” to which he said: “Here I am.” 5 Then he said: “Do not come near here. Draw your sandals from off your feet, because the place where you are standing is holy ground.”



ACTS Ch. 7
30 “And when forty years were fulfilled, there appeared to him in the wilderness of Mount Sinai an angel in the fiery flame of a thornbush. 31 Now when Moses saw it he marveled at the sight. But as he was approaching to investigate, Jehovah’s voice came 32 ‘I am the God of your forefathers, the God of Abraham and of Isaac and of Jacob.’ Seized with trembling, Moses did not dare to investigate further.

C) Did Moses see to Jehovah God?
11 And Jehovah spoke to Moses face to face, just as a man would speak to his fellow. When he returned to the camp, his minister Joshua, the son of Nun, as attendant, would not withdraw from the midst of the tent.

20 And he added: “You are NOT able to see my face, because NO MAN may see me and yet live.”

So if God says Man CANNOT See Him Then it must be TRUE!

So then who did Moses see and speak with, no need to guess, the Bible tells us it was God’s messengers, the Angels, see below:-

Acts 7:53
YOU who received the Law as transmitted by angels but have not kept it.”

Acts 7:38
This is he that came to be among the congregation in the wilderness with the angel that spoke to him on Mount Sinai and with our forefathers, and he received living sacred pronouncements to give YOU.


Galatians 3:19 Why, then, the Law? It was added to make transgressions manifest, until the seed should arrive to whom the promise had been made; and it was transmitted through angels by the hand of a mediator.

Hebrews 2:2 For if the word* spoken through angels proved to be firm, and every transgression and disobedient act received a retribution in harmony with justice;
*Law

As the Holy Scriptures states that Almighty God cannot be seen, see below:-

1 John 4:12 At NO TIME has anyone beheld God.

John 1:18 No man has seen God at any time; the only-begotten god who is in the bosom [position] with the Father is the one that has explained him.

Now this is an important statement in our discussion, “NO MAN has seen God at ANY time” as this must include Abraham otherwise it is untrue, and that cannot be so can it?

John 5:37 Also, the Father who sent me has himself borne witness about me. YOU have neither heard his voice at any time nor seen his figure.”

John 6:46 “Jesus said “Not that any man has seen the Father, except he who is from God; this one has seen the Father.””

If the Bible says that NO man at ANY time has or can see God then this must be true as it is statement “inspired of God”.

Then Moses must have seen & talked with Jehovah’s angelic messengers, which are addressed as Jehovah, because that represented him, they spoke for God.

Your question:-
God cannot appear as a Dove he would be braking his own law!
 
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GraceSeeker

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Your question:-
God cannot appear as a Dove he would be braking his own law!

First, it isn't spelled BRAKING, but breaking. (I'm not a perfect speller either, but since you mis-spelled it twice, I thought you might like to know.)

So, you argument is basically that since scripture declares that no man has ever seen God that any appearance of God must be an appearance of something completely other than God. Well, that is one type of logic. Of course if you take it like that, then you have to deny the validity and do all sorts of mental gymnatics with other passages of scripture, but it appears you are quite willing to do that. I'm not.

When Jacob says, "I saw God face to face, and yet my life was spared" (Genesis 32:30), I accept that at face value just as you accept that no one can see God.

We also know that "The LORD would speak to Moses face to face, as a man speaks with his friend" (Exodus 33:11). Yet in this very same chapter (though a different pericope) when Moses asks God to show him his glory, we get a quite different telling,
Exodus 33

18 Then Moses said, "Now show me your glory."
19 And the LORD said, "I will cause all my goodness to pass in front of you, and I will proclaim my name, the LORD, in your presence. I will have mercy on whom I will have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I will have compassion. 20 But," he said, "you cannot see my face, for no one may see me and live." 21 Then the LORD said, "There is a place near me where you may stand on a rock. 22 When my glory passes by, I will put you in a cleft in the rock and cover you with my hand until I have passed by. 23 Then I will remove my hand and you will see my back; but my face must not be seen."

It seems to me that the question about seeing God's face might be conditioned on what else is transpiring at the time or how one sees it. But God is willing to show himself to people for Moses was clearly allowed to see God's back which was distinguished from seeing God's face. That being so, I have no problem with God showing himself to humanity in various other theophanies, and don't see them as God breaking any law. What I do see is you trying to make something a law for God when God himself has not done so. There are better answers to the passages that state that no one can see God than what you have arrived at, for if that is true in the way you understand it; then, at least in case of Jacob and Moses, God has indeed broken with what is reported to be true in scripture.
 
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barryrob

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First, it isn't spelled BRAKING, but breaking. (I'm not a perfect speller either, but since you mis-spelled it twice, I thought you might like to know.)

So, you argument is basically that since scripture declares that no man has ever seen God that any appearance of God must be an appearance of something completely other than God. Well, that is one type of logic. Of course if you take it like that, then you have to deny the validity and do all sorts of mental gymnatics with other passages of scripture, but it appears you are quite willing to do that. I'm not.

When Jacob says, "I saw God face to face, and yet my life was spared" (Genesis 32:30), I accept that at face value just as you accept that no one can see God.

We also know that "The LORD would speak to Moses face to face, as a man speaks with his friend" (Exodus 33:11). Yet in this very same chapter (though a different pericope) when Moses asks God to show him his glory, we get a quite different telling,

It seems to me that the question about seeing God's face might be conditioned on what else is transpiring at the time or how one sees it. But God is willing to show himself to people for Moses was clearly allowed to see God's back which was distinguished from seeing God's face. That being so, I have no problem with God showing himself to humanity in various other theophanies, and don't see them as God breaking any law. What I do see is you trying to make something a law for God when God himself has not done so. There are better answers to the passages that state that no one can see God than what you have arrived at, for if that is true in the way you understand it; then, at least in case of Jacob and Moses, God has indeed broken with what is reported to be true in scripture.


Jesus Christ said:-


John 1:18

(ASV) No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.

(BBE) No man has seen God at any time; the only Son, who is on the breast of the Father, he has made clear what God is.


(Darby) No one has seen God at any time; the only-begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, *he* hath declared him .


If Jesus says that "No one has [ever] seen God [at any time]" then as a Christian I believe him, do you?


I also believe the following, do you?


2Ti 3:16 Every Scripture is inspired by God and is useful for teaching, for convincing, for correction of error, and for instruction in right doing; 17 so that the man of God may himself be complete and may be perfectly equipped for every good work.
 
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GraceSeeker

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Jesus Christ said:-


John 1:18

(ASV) No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.

(BBE) No man has seen God at any time; the only Son, who is on the breast of the Father, he has made clear what God is.


(Darby) No one has seen God at any time; the only-begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, *he* hath declared him .


If Jesus says that "No one has [ever] seen God [at any time]" then as a Christian I believe him, do you?
I believe him, but I don't understand Jesus to mean what you appear to believe him to mean.

My beliefs accommodate the testimony of Jehovah's witnesses (such as Jacob and Moses given above) that were recorded in the OT as having actually seen God.

"I saw God face to face, and yet my life was spared." (Genesis 32:30)

"I will remove my hand and you will see my back." (Exodus 33:23)



Why do I believe them?

It is just as you cited:

2Ti 3:16 Every Scripture is inspired by God and is useful for teaching, for convincing, for correction of error, and for instruction in right doing; 17 so that the man of God may himself be complete and may be perfectly equipped for every good work.

Hence those passages where Jacob and Moses did indeed see God have to be understood as true as well. How can both be true at the same time? I suggest that Jesus is NOT saying that it is impossible for God to take on visible forms, but that when we have these experiences it is not the same as seeing God in the way that Jesus knows him and can make him known to us. Given that you already testified that you hold all of scripture to be true, how do you hold these contradicting passages, at the same time, both be true?
 
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barryrob

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I believe him, but I don't understand Jesus to mean what you appear to believe him to mean.

My beliefs accommodate the testimony of Jehovah's witnesses (such as Jacob and Moses given above) that were recorded in the OT as having actually seen God.

"I saw God face to face, and yet my life was spared." (Genesis 32:30)

"I will remove my hand and you will see my back." (Exodus 33:23)



Why do I believe them?

It is just as you cited:

2Ti 3:16 Every Scripture is inspired by God and is useful for teaching, for convincing, for correction of error, and for instruction in right doing; 17 so that the man of God may himself be complete and may be perfectly equipped for every good work.

Hence those passages where Jacob and Moses did indeed see God have to be understood as true as well. How can both be true at the same time? I suggest that Jesus is NOT saying that it is impossible for God to take on visible forms, but that when we have these experiences it is not the same as seeing God in the way that Jesus knows him and can make him known to us. Given that you already testified that you hold all of scripture to be true, how do you hold these contradicting passages, at the same time, both be true?


The meanig of seeing God; example in Gideon:-


Did Gideon talk to Jehovah God in person?


JUDGES Ch. 6


11 Later Jehovah’s angel came and sat under the big tree that was in Oph´rah, which belonged to Jo´ash the Abi-ez´rite, while Gid´e·on his son was beating out wheat in the winepress so as to get it quickly out of the sight of Mid´i·an. 12 Then Jehovah’s angel appeared to him and said to him: “Jehovah is with you, you valiant, mighty one.” 13 At this Gid´e·on said to him: “Excuse me, my lord, but if Jehovah is with us, then why has all this come upon us, and where are all his wonderful acts that our fathers related to us, saying, ‘Was it not out of Egypt that Jehovah brought us up?’ And now Jehovah has deserted us, and he gives us into the palm of Mid´i·an.” 14 Upon that Jehovah faced him and said: “Go in this power of yours, and you will certainly save Israel out of Mid´i·an’s palm. Do I not send you?” 15 In turn he said to him: “Excuse me, Jehovah. With what shall I save Israel? Look! My thousand is the least in Ma·nas´seh, and I am the smallest in my father’s house.” 16 But Jehovah said to him: “Because I shall prove to be with you, and you will certainly strike down Mid´i·an as if one man.”

17 At this he said to him: “If, now, I have found favor in your eyes, you must also perform a sign for me that you are the one speaking with me. 18 Do not, please, move away from here until I come to you and I have brought out my gift and set it before you.” Accordingly he said: “I, for my part, shall keep sitting here until you return.” 19 And Gid´e·on went in and proceeded to make ready a kid of the goats and an e´phah of flour as unfermented cakes. The meat he put in the basket, and the broth he put in the cooking pot, after which he brought it out to him under the big tree and served it.

20 The angel of the [true] God now said to him: “Take the meat and the unfermented cakes and set them on the big rock there, and pour out the broth.” At that he did so. 21 Then Jehovah’s angel thrust out the tip of the staff that was in his hand and touched the meat and the unfermented cakes, and fire began to ascend out of the rock and to consume the meat and the unfermented cakes. As for Jehovah’s angel, he vanished from his sight. 22 Consequently Gid´e·on realized that it was Jehovah’s angel.

At once Gid´e·on said: “Alas, Sovereign Lord Jehovah, for the reason that I have seen Jehovah’s angel face to face!” 23 But Jehovah said to him: “Peace be yours. Do not fear. You will not die.” 24 So Gid´e·on built an altar there to Jehovah, and it continues to be called Je·ho´vah-sha´lom down to this day. It is yet in Oph´rah of the Abi-ez´rites.


Same sitiation in Moses case!

Thus Jesus said no one has seen God!
 
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GraceSeeker

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Doesn't matter if it was an angel that spoke with Gideon or not. All anyone has to do is find a single case of a person seeing God and your particular interpretation flies out the window. And I've actually given you two: Moses AND Jacob.

NO, it was not the same with Moses as it was with Gideon. With regard to Gideon the text tells us "I have seen Jehovah’s angel," but with regard to Moses the text tells us that God spoke face to face with Moses "as a man speaks with his friend." In my experience, a man speaks to his friend directly, not via a messenger.
 
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barryrob

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Doesn't matter if it was an angel that spoke with Gideon or not. All anyone has to do is find a single case of a person seeing God and your particular interpretation flies out the window. And I've actually given you two: Moses AND Jacob.

NO, it was not the same with Moses as it was with Gideon. With regard to Gideon the text tells us "I have seen Jehovah’s angel," but with regard to Moses the text tells us that God spoke face to face with Moses "as a man speaks with his friend." In my experience, a man speaks to his friend directly, not via a messenger.

Now that would be intresting:-

Colossians 1:15
He is the image of the invisible God, . . .

1 Timothy 1:17
Now to the King of eternity, incorruptible, invisible, [the] only God, be honor and glory forever and ever. Amen.
 
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