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Searching_for_Christ

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So I was wondering something. I go to a non-denominational bible Church and they (because I'm sacramental..took a lot of looking into Catholicism and Anglicanism to get me to settle on the Lutheran view) anyways, they believe its symbolic. Now is there a "phrase" that makes the communion well..right..uggg...I can't think of the darn word, I remember talking to another Lutheran (Missouri Synod) about this..whats it called when the priest speaks..and it does something...err..I bet you guys know what I'm talking about :p so is there a way for the Communion in a Church that believes it to be symbolic..well is it possible for them to do it wrong? Also is it wrong to participate in a Communion that is being treated as symbolic? (oh..I think I remember the words now..ehh.. the "words of institution" ? oh well)
 

TheCosmicGospel

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Sacraments: How real do they need to be?

Was circumcision symbolic? Yes. Was it real? Very real.

Was the Passover Lamb symbolic? Yes. Was it real? Yes.

Luther believed that as God used physical elements in the Old Testament, He did so in the New Covenant.

I always thought the New was superior to the Old, especially since the Messiah came in fulfillment. Interestingly enough, the Reformed view is that it's not. It doesn't save, not much of anything, it is only like sharing a bag of chips. Yet, they would argue for the Passover as a saving act of God or that God used other means in the OT to save and direct His people. There is the snake on the cross in the wilderness for example. Once you start looking, there is no end. Luther would say, too, there is no difference except what God is using in the New Testament is water, wine, and bread. All symbols, but also real and life giving because God is present in His command and promise to bless all who partake in faith. Christ is life and where He is found, so too is life and salvation.

Peace,

Cos
 
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Tangible

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Yes, the words of institution, aka the Verba.

There are two things that make it difficult for your average evangelicalist to accept the efficacy of baptism and the real presence in communion.

- They have nothing in their theology about the means of grace. They do not believe that Spiritual God who created physical matter uses objects made of physical matter to deliver his spiritual faith and the Holy Spirit himself to our physical bodies through physical means. Means of Grace.

- Since they lack a theology of means of grace, they mistakenly assume that the Sacraments are merely new laws that Jesus gave to be obeyed, and have turned them into works of man done in order to try to please God, instead of the grace-filled Sacraments by which God acts to come to us for the forgiveness of our sins.

As to whether or not the Sacraments are present or efficacious in these churches, there appears to be some good news and some bad news.

Regarding Baptism, there is good news. The LCMS (and probably all other Lutherans) believe that if one is baptized using the Trinitarian Name - The Father, the Son, the Holy Spirit - then the baptism is efficacious, regardless of whether or not the baptizer or the baptized believe that it is. (Is that last clause right, DaRev?)

Regarding Communion, however there may be bad news. 1 Cor 11:28-30 says this:

1 Cor 11:28 (ESV) Let a person examine himself, then, and so eat of the bread and drink of the cup. 29 For anyone who eats and drinks without discerning the body eats and drinks judgment on himself. 30 That is why many of you are weak and ill, and some have died.

Now, it's a little difficult to say that Memorialists are sicker than Sacramentalists, or that more of them die, but surely there must be something going on here even if it is being hidden from our eyes. Memorialists tend to ignore this verse or attempt to explain it away.

We believe that for the Sacrament to be properly administered, the communicants must share faith in God's Word that the true body and the true blood of Christ are received in the Sacrament, and this is what is meant by "discerning the body."
 
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DaRev

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So I was wondering something. I go to a non-denominational bible Church and they (because I'm sacramental..took a lot of looking into Catholicism and Anglicanism to get me to settle on the Lutheran view) anyways, they believe its symbolic. Now is there a "phrase" that makes the communion well..right..uggg...I can't think of the darn word, I remember talking to another Lutheran (Missouri Synod) about this..whats it called when the priest speaks..and it does something...err..I bet you guys know what I'm talking about :p so is there a way for the Communion in a Church that believes it to be symbolic..well is it possible for them to do it wrong? Also is it wrong to participate in a Communion that is being treated as symbolic? (oh..I think I remember the words now..ehh.. the "words of institution" ? oh well)

The Lutheran Confessions teach that the word of God is what makes the Sacrament valid. When the words of institution (aka, the Verba) are spoken in the context of the Mass (Divine Service), the very body and blood of Christ is received along with the bread and wine. But when the word of God is changed, including the meanings of the words (Formula of Concord, SD VII, 32), then it is no longer the word of God. And where the word of God is not present, then the Sacrament is not present. So those churches whose confession has changed the meaning or misinterpreted Christ's words in the Verba do not have the Sacrament, but simply mere bread and wine.

Is it wrong to commune in such a church? If you truly believe that Christ's body and blood are given to us to eat and drink for the forgiveness of our sins, but your church confesses that the Sacrament is a mere memorial or just symbolic, then by communing there you are making a statement that you agree with their confession or teaching. If you believe in the Real Presence of Christ but your church does not, then you really shouldn't commune there.
 
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Lazerboy

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1 Cor 11:28 (ESV) Let a person examine himself, then, and so eat of the bread and drink of the cup. 29 For anyone who eats and drinks without discerning the body eats and drinks judgment on himself. 30 That is why many of you are weak and ill, and some have died.

What I've heard in the Baptist church is that "discerning the body" means to recognize the Christian church universal as being such.
 
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JoeCatch

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Yeah. Because the context of the verse is talking about unity in the universal Church, not the proper view of Communion. :doh:

As far as I'm concerned, it's pretty clear that the unity of the church is precisely what Paul is writing about here. This is the situation in Corinth that he's addressing: The wealthy among the Corinthians were feasting during the Lord's supper while the poor went hungry (v. 21). One obvious truth that this points to is that, at this point, the supper itself was still exactly that: an actual, full meal as Jesus himself instituted, and not the liturgical ritual of a bite of bread and sip of wine that we now know as "the Lord's Supper."

The divisions that Paul cites (v. 18) were not doctrinal; they were socioeconomic. The rich feasting while the poor went hungry was an abject corruption of the open commensality that Jesus himself instituted, where everybody was welcome and nobody received a lesser share of the meal than anyone else. The clarification of who among the Corinthians was genuine (v. 19) was this: those who came to "the Lord's Supper" and ate feasted well while others went hungry weren't genuinely keeping what Jesus himself intended the supper to be: radically open and equal. That's the "proper view of communion" that Paul's concerned about.

Paul explicitly states that it is this feasting while others go hungry that brings condemnation (v. 34); he even offers specific instructions for how to rectify the situation--wait for one another and, if you're really hunry, eat at home so that you won't scandalously make a show of the fact that you're better off than others at the Lord's table (vv. 33-34). The specific situation at Corinth that he was addressing had absolutely nothing to do with whether anyone among the Corinthians confessed or denied that the bread and wine were truly Christ's body and blood. For that matter, the view that Lazerboy ascribes to the Baptists (that Paul's issue is the recognition of the universality of the Christian church) isn't quite right either. It had everything to do with divisions within members of the Corinthian community itself, and not the universality of the church insofar as it concerned their relationship to any other communities.

So what's going on in vv. 23-32? First, obviously, Paul is reciting a formula. What's the purpose of reciting the formula (i.e., the Word of Institution, vv. 23-26)? It's not to spell out the specifics of the doctrine of the Real Presence; in fact Paul tells us what he's doing with the formula directly after reciting it: he's using it as a rhetorical device to drive home a point to the Corinthians about the seriousness of the situation and their offense (v. 27). The warnings about examination, worthiness, death and judgment all relate directly back to the specific situation of class divisions at the meal; they borrow the language of the formula in order to emphasize further the high stakes and real consequences of the Corinthians' corruption of the open and equal table that Christ instituted.

None of this has anything to do with maintaining a doctrinally correct view of the Real Presence as we now understand it. That's just a projection of our own situation and our own concerns onto Paul's text.
 
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wildboar

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1 Corinthians 11:26-29 For as often as you eat this bread and drink this cup, you proclaim the Lord's death till He comes. 27 Therefore whoever eats this bread or drinks this cup of the Lord in an unworthy manner will be guilty of the body and blood of the Lord. 28 But let a man examine himself, and so let him eat of the bread and drink of the cup. 29 For he who eats and drinks in an unworthy manner eats and drinks judgment to himself, not discerning the Lord's body.

Up until recent times almost all commentators regarded "not discerning the Lord's body" as referring to not discerning that the actual body of Christ is present. In recent years it has become popular (probably due to Fee's commentary) to understand the "Lord's body" as referring to the actual congregation. However Paul says they are guilty of the body AND BLOOD of the Lord which wouldn't make much sense if the only intended meaning were the congregation. I think there is a double meaning here--referring both the actual body and blood of Christ and the congregation as well. Those who were treating the Lord's Supper as a means to gorge themselves while creating disunity with the poor were also missing the point and not discerning the body and blood of the Lord. I think this is also the only explanation that makes sense of what follows.

1 Corinthians 11:30 For this reason many are weak and sick among you, and many sleep.

People were actually getting sick and dying from partaking of the body and blood of Christ in an unworthy manner. Chrysostom said that this is why Judas's bowels gushed out after he died.
 
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JoeCatch

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I think a good case can be made that Paul is mentioning being guilty of the blood of the Lord (as well as the body) only because it's part of the formula that he's using. Aside from being a part of that formula, it just really doesn't have anything to do with anything else that Paul's writing about here.

There could be a double-meaning here; it's not out of the realm of possibility. My point, though, is that the primary meaning has to do with corrupting the table that Jesus instituted by introducing socioeconomic divisions into it; that, to me, just clearly is the context of Paul's comments, and we have to take that as our starting point if we want to understand what he's saying. Those who would read a second meaning into this text about Real Presence theology could be right; there may very well be a double-meaning at work here, but they've got some exegetical work to do to make a case for that second meaning being supportable from the text itself.

Yes, there have been big changes in Pauline scholarship over the past half-century or so. I'm not familiar with Fee, but I know that the work of figures like Krister Stendahl (whose Paul among Jews and Gentiles I'm reading right now) has been hugely influential in scholars' attempts to return to Paul's own situation when trying to get a good reading of his texts, rather than simply reading into them our own situation. On Stendahl's view, that's what commentators since Augustine have been doing, and it's a bad way to read Paul. I'm not yet finished with Stendahl's book, but as far as I've gotten, I think he's fundamentally got it right.

Whether people actually were getting sick and dying at an unusual rate in the Corinthian community is unsubstantiated. Paul's attribution of any such widespread illness to their abuse of the Lord's Supper is purely speculative; certainly Chrysostom's reading of the disembowelment of Judas is even more so. Whatever was actually going on, Paul definitely seems to believe that their abuse of the Supper is the culprit, which says more about the seriousness of the matter in his mind than I think it does about anyone's actual cause of death.
 
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wildboar

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Joe said:
Whether people actually were getting sick and dying at an unusual rate in the Corinthian community is unsubstantiated. Paul's attribution of any such widespread illness to their abuse of the Lord's Supper is purely speculative; certainly Chrysostom's reading of the disembowelment of Judas is even more so. Whatever was actually going on, Paul definitely seems to believe that their abuse of the Supper is the culprit, which says more about the seriousness of the matter in his mind than I think it does about anyone's actual cause of death.

So Stendahl has a better grasp on the historical situation than Paul did?
 
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JoeCatch

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So Stendahl has a better grasp on the historical situation than Paul did?

No, that's not my point here. My point (not Stendahl's here, actually) is that, first of all, how would Paul even have been able to determine that sacramental abuse was the cause of death of any particular Corinthians who met a premature demise? Where's he getting that? My contention is that there's no way he possibly could have had any insight into anybody's actual cause of death (he wasn't a physician, and wasn't even physically present among the Corinthians when these deaths-by-sacramental-abuse were supposedly taking place), and that the death talk here is functioning purely as a rhetorical device.

By analogy, it's about the equivalent of people who think that the tornado in Minneapolis was a sign from God that God is displeased with the ELCA's decision to welcome LGBTQ persons into the full life of the church. (I know, I know, there are many here who actually take such nonsense seriously.) Just as those who insisted that the tornado was somehow God's judgment against the ELCA really had absolutely none of the privileged access to the consciousness of God that would have been necessary to make that sort of conclusion with any certainty, so Paul had no such privileged access either.

If there happened, by coincidence, to be some sort of epidemic at Corinth at that time, then it would have been a great polemical device for Paul to have co-opted that coincidence and used it as evidence of his point regarding the seriousness of the Corinthians' abuse of the sacrament. But if there was any such epidemic, then the connection between it and the sacramental abuse existed only in Paul's mind, for the purpose of making that point. If the epidemic of premature deaths at Corinth did actually happen, it was every bit as much of a coincidence as that tornado--i.e., completely and totally. It was a brilliant bit of rhetoric on Paul's part to interpret those deaths in that way, since clearly some people actually still find such fantastical explanations of natural phenomena convincing even to this day, but a bit of rhetoric to drive home the seriousness of his point with regard to the corruption of the open table is all it was.
 
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DaRev

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No, that's not my point here. My point (not Stendahl's here, actually) is that, first of all, how would Paul even have been able to determine that sacramental abuse was the cause of death of any particular Corinthians who met a premature demise? Where's he getting that?

*raises had excitedly* Oooh, oooh, let me try this one!!
Could it be... Divine inspiration?
 
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wildboar

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Joe said:
No, that's not my point here. My point (not Stendahl's here, actually) is that, first of all, how would Paul even have been able to determine that sacramental abuse was the cause of death of any particular Corinthians who met a premature demise? Where's he getting that?

I don't know exactly how he knows this but he at least claims to know it and since he was in much closer proximity I'll take his witness to the events over yours. I believe there is some testimony thoughout church history that tells of people who took the sacrament unworthily and died some very unusual death. It's hard to explain Judas' bowels gushing out apart from it. I don't know of any people who hang themselves and have their bowels gush out from it.

Joe said:
By analogy, it's about the equivalent of people who think that the tornado in Minneapolis was a sign from God that God is displeased with the ELCA's decision to welcome LGBTQ persons into the full life of the church. (I know, I know, there are many here who actually take such nonsense seriously.) Just as those who insisted that the tornado was somehow God's judgment against the ELCA really had absolutely none of the privileged access to the consciousness of God that would have been necessary to make that sort of conclusion with any certainty, so Paul had no such privileged access either.

So people who think that the tornado was sent by God are like Paul? I'm in pretty good company then. Does that make the people who don't think it was sent by God like the people in the Corinthian church who thought nothing of the people dying and getting sick after taking the sacrament?

steve said:
It was a brilliant bit of rhetoric on Paul's part to interpret those deaths in that way, since clearly some people actually still find such fantastical explanations of natural phenomena convincing even to this day, but a bit of rhetoric to drive home the seriousness of his point with regard to the corruption of the open table is all it was.

So when reading the Bible do you often find yourself in the company of those the Apostles were writing against?
 
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JoeCatch

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*raises had excitedly* Oooh, oooh, let me try this one!!
Could it be... Divine inspiration?

If one were inclined to accept such a view, sure. I, of course, don't.

I don't know exactly how he knows this but he at least claims to know it and since he was in much closer proximity I'll take his witness to the events over yours. I believe there is some testimony thoughout church history that tells of people who took the sacrament unworthily and died some very unusual death. It's hard to explain Judas' bowels gushing out apart from it. I don't know of any people who hang themselves and have their bowels gush out from it.

No, not hard at all, really. It's notable that the Acts account of Judas's death doesn't even mention a hanging, only that he died by "falling headlong." Depending on where a person fell (e.g., over a rocky cliff), disembowelment isn't a difficult consequence to explain at all. At the very least, the sacramental abuse theory about the nature of Judas's death is both late and speculative. Same goes for the supposed testimony of such deaths continuing to occur throughout church history--entirely speculative. For what it's worth, the lives of the saints are filled with all sorts of fantastic claims, most of which should not be taken literally, as they're clearly literary tropes.

It's interesting, though, that no such claims about death-by-sacramental-abuse are made today. Has unworthy reception of the sacrament ceased? Have pastors who practice closed communion just been doing such a good job of it for the past few hundred years that nobody has been allowed to commune unworthily to their deaths? I'm being a bit facetious here, but my point is a serious one: We just don't talk this way anymore. Deaths just plain don't get attributed to unworthy sacramental reception anymore. Several options present themselves here: 1. God has simply, for whatever reason, seen fit to do away with literal, physical death as a consequence of unworthy reception; 2. Unworthy reception has, for whatever reason, simply ceased (or at least ceased to be a sufficiently widespread and regular occurrence), and that's why nobody dies of it anymore; 3. People do still literally, physically die of unworthy sacramental reception, but due to our modern emphasis on giving natural explanations for natural occurrences, we just don't notice or talk about it that way anymore; 4. There never was any literal, physical death as a consequence of unworthy reception to begin with. Option #4, it's clear to me, best accounts for all of the evidence.

So people who think that the tornado was sent by God are like Paul? I'm in pretty good company then.

Like Paul in that you're employing a polemic, yes. Like Paul in that your polemic is entirely speculative, yes.

Does that make the people who don't think it was sent by God like the people in the Corinthian church who thought nothing of the people dying and getting sick after taking the sacrament?

In that we don't speculate about whether this or that completely natural event is somehow an expression of the wrath of God, sure. (Of course, the two situations are disanalogous in that what the Corinthians were doing--corrupting the table of open commensality that Jesus instituted--was in violation of God's will for the church, whereas the ELCA's decision in favor of full inclusion is precisely the sort of expression of open commensality that Jesus intended. But the homosexuality issue has been discussed ad nauseam now, so there's no need to rehash the same arguments.) But, yeah, we don't claim to be able to see into the mind of God when it comes to interpreting entirely natural events, so for whatever that's worth, I suppose we have it in common with the Corinthians, if it pleases you to hear it.

As far as I'm concerned, though, those today most like the Corinthians in their communion practices are those who practice close(d) communion; they're the ones violating Jesus's institution of a radically open table of inclusion and equality.

So when reading the Bible do you often find yourself in the company of those the Apostles were writing against?

Well, my initial claim was that the situations being addressed in the NT epistles (and particularly in Paul's) were specific rather than general. So I'm not "in the company" of the addressees of the epistles because I'm basically an overhearer of a conversation between two parties (them and Paul) concerning matters that don't directly address my own situation. To the extent that any of us can glean anything from overhearing those conversations (and I think we can glean quite a lot that way, by the way, but only if we keep the fact of our own bystander status clearly in our minds), then I think we all find ourselves in need of correction and able to profit from the counsel that Paul offers in his epistles. But we can't understand Paul correctly by just assuming that our issues and our concerns were the ones that he had in mind; we've got to take his own situation as the starting point if we want to get what he's saying.
 
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wildboar

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Joe said:
As far as I'm concerned, though, those today most like the Corinthians in their communion practices are those who practice close(d) communion; they're the ones violating Jesus's institution of a radically open table of inclusion and equality.

But it does not matter what you are concerned about. No Christian church until modern times has ever practiced open communion. The issue in the Corinthian church was not an issue of people who wouldn't allow those who denied the Deity of Christ to commune with them but of people who were united in belief but divided economic situation.

I don't feel qualified to make judgment as to whether or not people are still experiencing physical death for partaking unworthily. I think they very well may be but that has no bearing on whether or not they were in Paul's day. If you are placing yourself in the position of corrector of Paul then I don't see how you can ever arrive at a correct interpretation. You are obviously going to discount anything that conflicts with your rationalistic worldview. I just don't see the point in being a Christian if we are going to explain all the miraculous events as being misinterpretations.
 
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JoeCatch

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But it does not matter what you are concerned about. No Christian church until modern times has ever practiced open communion.

Even if that's so, it doesn't change the fact that the meal that Jesus himself instituted was one of radically open commensality. I'm fully on board with the proposition that the meal that Jesus instituted was corrupted very early in the Christian tradition (perhaps right about the time that the actual agape feast itself passed out of use in favor of the Eucharist as we'd recognize it today as a strictly liturgical ritual), but corrupted it certainly was.

The earliest Christian communities demonstrated a great deal of diversity on many matters, probably including their practices regarding the Lord's Supper. It wasn't until Augustine that a unified Christian tradition started to emerge, and the tradition that did emerge was saddled with all of Augustine's mistakes, which were many.

The issue in the Corinthian church was not an issue of people who wouldn't allow those who denied the Deity of Christ to commune with them but of people who were united in belief but divided economic situation.

Precisely so; this is what I've been saying all along. Nevertheless this is where respecting our place as bystanders and overhearers of the conversation between Paul and the Corinthians (well, Paul's half of it, anyway) can help us possibly learn something that's relevant to our own situation. The reason that Paul was furious about the Corinthians' communion practices was that those practices were not in keeping with the meal that Jesus himself instituted.

We need to go back to the Gospels to see what sort of meal Jesus himself did institute, and what we see there is that everybody was welcome, everybody had a place and everybody had their fill. Nobody was turned away from Jesus's table, nobody was seen as a lesser-than at it and nobody came away from it having received less than enough. It is certainly worthwhile for us to reflect on our own practices and ask ourselves whether they demonstrate fidelity to what Jesus instituted. Close(d) communion does not; it does not welcome all, offer everybody a place or ensure that all receive abundantly what is offered at the Lord's table.

I don't feel qualified to make judgment as to whether or not people are still experiencing physical death for partaking unworthily. I think they very well may be but that has no bearing on whether or not they were in Paul's day. If you are placing yourself in the position of corrector of Paul then I don't see how you can ever arrive at a correct interpretation.

A correct interpretation, as far as I'm concerned, is one that's faithful to what Paul himself actually meant. I can agree with Paul or disagree with him; I can take his words at face value or or recognize that he's often employing rhetorical devices. Agreement with Paul is not required for understanding him, though. Do you really mean to claim that it's only possible to interpret and understand a text correctly if you accept everything it says at face value? Well, why would anyone believe that? Or did you have something else in mind when you claimed that it's only possible to arrive at the correct interpretation of a text if one accepts the truth of its contents uncritically?

You are obviously going to discount anything that conflicts with your rationalistic worldview.

No, I'm going to seek to understand those things in such a way that they can be meaningful to modern hearers and readers. There's a huge difference between that and discounting.

I just don't see the point in being a Christian if we are going to explain all the miraculous events as being misinterpretations.

Yeah, I suppose if you were to assume that Christianity were primarily about miracle stories, then there certainly wouldn't be much point in being a Christian without literally believing in those stories. That's plainly obvious.

But what if, instead, being a Christian meant something like the following:

  • Being a somebody in a world that tells you that you're a nobody;
  • Being accepted in a community when others have turned you away;
  • Having your worth and dignity affirmed when the rest of society stigmatizes you and looks down on you;
  • Sharing and seeing to it that everybody's cared for in a world that lets too many people go without;
  • Affirming the equal worth of all in a world that insists that some are more valuable and than others;
  • Having the courage to live out God's empire as a radical alternative to the imperialism of human civilization?
Now, of course, that's a pretty different picture of what it means to be a Christian. It doesn't really seem to have much at all to do with the conception of Christianity as being primarily about individualistic, otherworldly, supernatural, personal salvation. But it definitely has a lot to do with what Jesus's own movement and ministry were actually about. It has to do with all of the above being an expression of the true nature of God's own self, and Jesus as the unique person who fully reveals to us that divine nature. When people encounter Jesus, that encounter fully reveals to us both what God is and who we were. In him, the implicit unity of God and humanity is made explicit through the concrete, historical event of the Incarnation, and that real historical event of the Incarnation has reconciled, once for all, God and the world. Now, if we have all of that, but no miracles (or any of the theodicy problems that come with them), that's OK by me.
 
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JoeCatch

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So, you don't accept that the Bible is inspired writ. That explains a lot.

I can't help but find it a little bit amusing that there are some here at TCL who consitently throw around the "so you're not an inerrantist!" card as though it's some sort of "gotcha!" moment. I've gone on record here many, many, many times as rejecting inerrantism, and yet for some reason every single time I do, somebody jumps forward, seemingly thinking him/herself clever for having "outed" me. Truly, truly puzzling.

Yeah, it pretty much does explain precisely why I find so much conservative/confessional theology so dreadfully misguided or flat-out wrong. But, really, Rev, this isn't anything that any of us didn't already know.
 
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wildboar

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Joe said:
Even if that's so, it doesn't change the fact that the meal that Jesus himself instituted was one of radically open commensality. I'm fully on board with the proposition that the meal that Jesus instituted was corrupted very early in the Christian tradition (perhaps right about the time that the actual agape feast itself passed out of use in favor of the Eucharist as we'd recognize it today as a strictly liturgical ritual), but corrupted it certainly was.

So did Jesus corrupt it? Because I don't remember Jesus inviting the pagans or even the other Jews. I distinctly remember 12 other people being there. Or is the Gospel account corrupted as well? In the "real" Lord's Supper did he dress as a clown and hold it on Mars Hill?

Joe said:
The earliest Christian communities demonstrated a great deal of diversity on many matters, probably including their practices regarding the Lord's Supper. It wasn't until Augustine that a unified Christian tradition started to emerge, and the tradition that did emerge was saddled with all of Augustine's mistakes, which were many.
Where do you get this stuff from? Have you read the patristic writings on the Eucharist and the early Eucharistic liturgies? Nothing of what you said makes any sense based on my reading of the documents, or have these been corrupted as well?

Joe said:
We need to go back to the Gospels to see what sort of meal Jesus himself did institute, and what we see there is that everybody was welcome, everybody had a place and everybody had their fill.

What "Gospels" are you reading?

joe said:
A correct interpretation, as far as I'm concerned, is one that's faithful to what Paul himself actually meant. I can agree with Paul or disagree with him; I can take his words at face value or or recognize that he's often employing rhetorical devices. Agreement with Paul is not required for understanding him, though. Do you really mean to claim that it's only possible to interpret and understand a text correctly if you accept everything it says at face value? Well, why would anyone believe that? Or did you have something else in mind when you claimed that it's only possible to arrive at the correct interpretation of a text if one accepts the truth of its contents uncritically?

Most modern linguistic theorists would argue that a person cannot fully understand a text without being a part of the community from which the text arose. I am suspicious to say the least of someone who appears to be critical of the text of giving me the correct interpretation. I've often read interpretations of confessional documents from various traditions that are far less open in their criticism than you are being but are still very critical and then try to bend some portion of the text to suit their own fancy which seems to be pretty clearly what you are doing.

joe said:
But what if, instead, being a Christian meant something like the following:

  • Being a somebody in a world that tells you that you're a nobody;
  • Being accepted in a community when others have turned you away;
  • Having your worth and dignity affirmed when the rest of society stigmatizes you and looks down on you;
  • Sharing and seeing to it that everybody's cared for in a world that lets too many people go without;
  • Affirming the equal worth of all in a world that insists that some are more valuable and than others;
  • Having the courage to live out God's empire as a radical alternative to the imperialism of human civilization?

You don't need Jesus for any of this so why bother with the Christian label? You can go to the self-help section of your local bookstore and read all about this. Christianity is not all about how everyone is fuzzy and happy but about how we are all poor miserable sinners who can do nothing save ourselves and Jesus did it all. If you want to learn about sharing you can watch Barney.
 
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