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The Sabbath, Before and After

Cribstyl

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It was from the beginning.

I pulled this word from Gen 2:2 וישבת

Can you tell me what it means?

Hint: The root is שבת
וַיִּשְׁבֹּת is the inflected verb "rest-ed"
שָׁבַת is the root verb "rest"
What did you think it's saying?
שַׁבָּת 'Sabbath' is a noun. (The marks under and pronunciation is different from 'rest'. Sabbath is weekly resting given to man.) Sabbath is a sign, God's rest is the real thing.
So your saying that the Shabbat was created for the double portion, not the other way around? You'll have to have to point out the double portion in the seven days of creation.
If you repost what I said, you wouldn't be misquoting me. I sense confusion because we both know that work comes before resting.

I'm elated that you are coming to this understanding.
The questions is where are your facts?

You say I'm incorrect about when manna was first given. Then you post from a book that is banned from the bible. Obviously your bible has more books than mine.


YHWH finished his work in 6 days. He expects the same from his children.
Too many rabbit holes for 1 post Hark, and you should know better.



It is reasoned in error that Abraham had the law because countless scriptures the makes it clear that Moses gave them the law. Abraham did obey God by leaving his father house. The book Jubilee says Abraham burned down his father's temple before he left. Jubilee also says that Seth mated with angels to have children.
Abraham did keep God's charge by being ready to sacrifice Isaac.
Abraham did keep the law of circumcision and other commands for his people to leave Sodom and arrive where God led them.


Don't take it so hard.
I said I was sorry because followers of Christ are to love one another not argue consistently.
 
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HARK!

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וַיִּשְׁבֹּת is the inflected verb "rest-ed"

You say that it's a inflected verb. I say that it expresses a thought. Can you tell me the tense?

שָׁבַת is the root verb "rest"

"Stop" would be a more accurate definition of Shabbat.

שַׁבָּת 'Sabbath' is a noun.

Stop can be expressed as either a verb or a noun depending on the context. When we stop for the seventh day; we make a stop for YHWH.


(The marks under and pronunciation is different from 'rest'. Sabbath is weekly resting given to man.)

Those marks are called niqqud. They are not present, nor do they reflect the pronunciation of ancient Hebrew. Hebrew is an evolving language; and it had already been infused with foreign languages when the niqqud were added in the Middle Ages. Your argument is void.

Sabbath is a sign, God's rest is the real thing.

Hebrews 4 provides us with insight into what I suspect you are eluding to. I would encourage you to study it.

That said, I won't entertain the notion that when YHWH shabbat on the seventh day, and thereby is making the seventh day kadosh, that it's not the real thing.
 
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HARK!

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If you repost what I said, you wouldn't be misquoting me. I sense confusion because we both know that work comes before resting.

So you'll concede that the double portion was created for Shabbat?
 
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HARK!

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You say I'm incorrect about when manna was first given. Then you post from a book that is banned from the bible. Obviously your bible has more books than mine.

I believe that the Catholic Church had no authority to dismiss Torah from YHWH's word. You can accept what Yahshua, his disciples, and the early assembly of Yahshua taught as scripture; or reject it.

I choose to embrace the scripture that YHWH charged the rightful Zadok Priesthood to preserve.

You can find more on this subject here: MJ Only - Jubilees is Torah According to 4Q266
 
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HARK!

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It is reasoned in error that Abraham had the law because countless scriptures the makes it clear that Moses gave them the law.

Moses didn't give Abraham the law. There are numerous examples of the law being before Abraham.

Yahshua said he was before Abraham. Yahshua was YHWH's word in the flesh. YHWH's word is a reflection of his nature. YHWH doesn't change; nor does his word.

You might gain some insight from this collection of scripture: The Way, The Truth, The Life, The Light, The Word

Two days ago I gave a man a dollar. That doesn't negate all of the dollars I had given to others before that day.
 
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HARK!

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I said I was sorry because followers of Christ are to love one another not argue consistently.

I ask YHWH to give me the strength to remember to be thankful for my detractors, for the Anomians, and even the Marcionists, that YHWH sets before me.

They unwittingly create a platform to proclaim the truth for all of those who love the truth.

All to our heavenly father's esteem.
 
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Cribstyl

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I dont understand what you're saying but truth does matter.

Sorry.
 
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Cribstyl

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Moses didn't give Abraham the law. There are numerous examples of the law being before Abraham.
The fact is Hark: being created in the image of God is the mark we miss when we sin. The The scripture about the flood show us that men fell from that image and began to do what was right in their own eyes.
It is falsely reasoned that Sin needs a law to break. Your trek to prove a law should come from Genesis.
Using a partial quote from 1John 3:4 as the definition of sin is a con job.
Before sending the flood, God did not say "they broke my law" because he did not give the ten yet. God's anger was in full display. He said that He hated that He made man. If you can't show clear scriptures of a law given before the flood you should pray about your understanding. I must admit, I have an attitude and some anger is towards those manipulating the word of God.
Starting with Noah we find that God did add a law to His covenant with Noah.
God's covenant contains His requirements of men.
Yahshua said he was before Abraham. Yahshua was YHWH's word in the flesh. YHWH's word is a reflection of his nature. YHWH doesn't change; nor does his word.
You just said 6 different statements, I'm not sure what you're trying to say here. The fact is the bible shows that God's covenants are His commandments for certain generations. Gen 12 is where bible history slows down because God chose Abraham.

God bless
 
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HARK!

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(CLV) Gn 26:5
inasmuch as your father Abraham hearkened to My voice and kept My charge, My instructions, My statutes and My laws.

Law before Moses?

(CLV) Gn 4:3
And it came to be at the end of a year's days that Cain brought an approach present to Yahweh from the fruit of the ground.

A mincha? Where did Cain come up with that idea?


(CLV) Gn 4:4
As for Abel however, he brought some firstlings of his flock and their fat portions. And Yahweh gave heed to Abel and his approach present.

The firstborn? How did Abel come up with that idea?

Does YHWH model his Torah after man's ideas?


(CLV) Gn 4:7
If you had done what is well, would you not lift up your face? But since you have not done well, at the portal there is a sin offering, a recliner; And for you is restoration in his sacrifice; + You are ruling over him.

Sin? If sin is transgression of the Torah; and the Torah was not given; how could the Torah be transgressed? A sin offering? Please explain.

(CLV) Gn 4:11
Now you are cursed, away from the ground which has opened wide its mouth to take your brother's blood from your hand.

Wait! What? Cain was cursed for a law that wasn't given? Does YHWH hold us acountable for that which we do not know? If Cain didn't know that he had transgressed the Torah; why wasn't he up front with YHWH with his brother's whereabouts?

Clearly the Torah was given before Moses. YHWH repeated the command not to murder to Noah.


(CLV) Gn 9:6
Whoever sheds the blood of a human, by a human his blood shall be shed; for in the image of Elohim He has made humanity.

Why?

In the image of Elohim He has made humanity...

When do you suppose that YHWH made man in his image? Do you suppose that it is in the image of YHWH, to violate his Torah?

Speaking of Noah:


CLV) Gn 8:20
Then Noah built an altar to Yahweh; he took some of every clean domestic beast and some of every clean flyer and offered up ascent offerings on the altar.

Noah new the clean animals and offered an olah before Moses was given the Torah?

How can this be?



(CLV) Gn 20:3
But Elohim came to Abimelech in a dream by night and said to him: Behold, you are to die on account of the woman whom you have taken, for she is the spouse of a possessor.

(CLV) Gn 20:4
Now Abimelech, he had not gone near her, and he said: My Lord, are You going to kill even an unknowing and righteous nation?

How did even this heathen know, that adultery was unrighteous, before Moses?

Definition of righteous

1 : acting in accord with divine or moral law : free from guilt or sin
Definition of RIGHTEOUS



(CLV) Gn 20:6
The One, Elohim, replied to him in the dream: I too know that you have done this in the sincerity of your heart, and I was also keeping you back from sinning- against Me. Therefore I did not allow you to touch her.

Sin is transgression of the Torah.

(CLV) Gn 39:9
He is no greater in this house than I am; and he has not kept back anything from me except you, because you are his wife. How should I do this great evil and -sin against Elohim?

Joseph knew the Torah too.
 
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HARK!

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Using a partial quote from 1John 3:4 as the definition of sin is a con job.

(CLV) 1Jn 3:4
Everyone who is doing sin is doing lawlessness also, and sin is lawlessness.

In light of Yahshua example, throughout his entire ministry, and his call for his disciples to follow that example, how would you explain those last three words away?
 
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HARK!

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Are you preparing for the next world flood?
 
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BobRyan

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1 John 3:4 "Sin IS transgression of the LAW"

It is falsely reasoned that Sin needs a law to break. Your trek to prove a law should come from Genesis.
Using a partial quote from 1John 3:4 as the definition of sin is a con job.

1. Your argument is "with the text"
2. After declaring your contradiction to its teaching you then declare that the mere quote of the text is "a bad thing" ?? seriously

Were we simply "not supposed to notice"???
 
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HARK!

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Distant future? In Matt 24:20-21 Jesus was speaking to the generation that was listening to Him at that time. No one would probably escape the burning down of Jerusalem on a Sabbath. The gates were always closed on Sabbath.

The siege lasted for five months. Are you asserting that the gates were open every day during that siege except the Shabbats? If so I'll need to see proof to back that assertion. In absence of evidence, common sense tells me to consider your assertion debunked
 
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BobRyan

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1. None of those texts say "The Sabbath did not exist before Exodus 20" - so almost no Bible scholar in any Christian denomination would be confused on that point.

2. None of those texts say "it was only a sin for Jews to take God's name in vain"

3. None of those texts delete Is 56:6 from scripture were even gentiles were singled out for Sabbath keeping and Christ affirms that the Sabbath was "made for mankind" Mark 2:27 and not "just Jews".

The problem with your suggestions - is scripture itself.
 
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