This discussion about "physical" reminds me of a quote from
The Matrix: "What is real? How do you define real? If you're talking about what you can feel, what you can smell, what you can taste and see, then real is simply electrical signals interpreted by your brain."
You've made some good points about physical things that we can't observe. Thanks for reminding me that just because we don't see something (like a red apple in a dark room) doesn't mean it isn't there. Whether it is still red or not might be a question for a philosopher (kinda like, "If a tree falls in a forest. . . .").
On to what I consider the physical world. Paper is a physical thing, and so is the ink on it. The ideas that that ink portrays, as you mentioned, are not physical. My friend is physical; our friendship is not. Wheat in bread is physical and so is the smell of the bread; the "Real Presence" is not physical in any measurable way, it is not a "material" occurance. By all the ways we can chemically measure or observe the bread and wine, there is no change.
Any change is one that we cannot observe (at least with our bodies). Do you agree?
Philip said:
Not quite. In the second case the 'because' is the cause of the conclusion. It is why the verb phrase 'must have' can be used. There is not similar construction in the verse I cited.
"I am saved because I believe in Jesus Christ."
"I believe in Jesus Christ because I am saved."
Both of those make sense, no? The first one has the effect first, then the necessary cause. The second one has the cause first, then the resulting effect. In the first, we I say that I am saved, what follow that with what caused it. In the second, I make a claim, and the "because" shows support for that claim. Since all who are saved believe, I am one who believes, for I am saved.
When you see "because," the the second thing proves the first statement. But the second thing is not necessarily the cause of the first thing; indeed, sometimes the opposite is the case.
Most statements with "because" can be inverted. "We need to go grocery shopping because we are out of food." "We are out of food because we need to go grocery shopping." In either case, if the phrase that follows the word "because" was not so, then the phrase preceding "because" would also not be true. To go respectively with the sentences above: "If we weren't out of food, we wouldn't need to go grocery shopping." "If we didn't need to go grocery shopping, that would mean that we weren't out of food."
Let's look at the scripture in question:
"Since there is one bread, we who are many are one body; for we all partake of the one bread." (NASB)
This verse says that because the bread is one (not many breads), we, though we seem to be many, are really one body; because otherwise, we would not partake of that one bread.
Anyway, two possible interpretations are possible. You can say, "Since there is one bread," means that it is because there is one bread, we are one body. Or you can say that "Since there is one bread," means that because we are one body, we eat of one bread. IOW, if we weren't one body, we wouldn't be partaking of one bread. So, since there is in fact one bread, we must be one body.
Philip said:
The words "because" and "for" are tied to the action of receiving the Eucharist. The result is that we are one body.
Either one could be the cause of the other. You can't determine from this verse which one it is. Just to make sure this point is clear, let me demonstrate once again how the order of phrases doesn't make the interpretation clear as to which element is causal. Note that the construction below is similar to the verse at hand.
"Since I exercise, I am fit; for exercise causes fitness."
"Since I am fit, I exercise; for exercise causes fitness."
So you can believe that the fact is that we are one body, and the evidence of that is that we eat one bread, or you can believe that the fact is that we eat one bread, and that the evidence of that is that we are one body. In the former, being one body causes us to eat one bread, and in the latter eating one bread causes us to be one body. The verse makes good sense interpreting it my way. We are one body, and we wouldn't eat of one bread unless we were one body. Therefore, "since there is one bread, we who are many are one body; for we all partake of the one bread."
The last phrase really is to clarify the first, so it could be said, "Since there is one bread of which we all partake, we who are many are one body." This sentence can either be showing us that we must be one body, since otherwise we wouldn't partake of one bread; or it can be showing us that because we partake of one bread, we are one body, because partaking of the Eucharist causes us to be one body. Either interpretation is possible, so we must look to other scriptures to show us whether the Eucharist causes us to be one body, or whether being one body causes us to take the Eucharist.
1Co 12:13 For in one Spirit we were all baptized into one body--Jews or Greeks, slaves or free--and all were made to drink of one Spirit. (ESV)
It is baptism that brings us into one body. The Eucharist does not bring us into one body, but rather, we partake of the Eucharist because we
are one body. If we were many separate people -- rather than
many members of
one body -- then we would eat of many breads. However,
Because there is one bread, we who are many are one body, for we all share the one bread. (NET)