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Even if there was any evidence that this were true, which clearly there isn't, could an omnipotent god not be more considerate about who bears the brunt of the suffering? Where's the logic and morality in allowing innocent children to suffer because John from Alabama rejects god?God's command offers the potential for obedience/agreement/oneness or disobedience/disagreement/separation.
Suffering exists because of beings who disobey and separate themselves from God and His commandments about how to live and not die.
Even if there was any evidence that this were true, which clearly there isn't,
could an omnipotent god not be more considerate about who bears the brunt of the suffering?
Where's the logic and morality in allowing innocent children to suffer because John from Alabama rejects god?
I'm curious, how "must" one know this? How does this wind up being in the premise? This sounds like a conclusion to me.
But what causes you to trust that? This still sounds like a conclusion, not a premise that can be used to draw conclusions.God is perfect, I trust that pursuant to the Word of God, He is in control, nothing to discuss regarding his sovereignty and perfection.
But what causes you to trust that? This still sounds like a conclusion, not a premise that can be used to draw conclusions.
Why do you trust that it's his word? You would have to already trust him for another reason in order to think that.I would say I trust God because He tells us to do so in His word.
Why do you trust that it's his word? You would have to already trust him for another reason in order to think that.
I hope I don't come across as attacking. I'm just trying to understand.
Too late. By that stage they had already 'eaten of the tree', an act they performed as complete innocents. And yet, they were harshly punished. Very, very unfair.
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