I think that "permissible" and "moral" would be synonyms in a forum entitled, "Ethics and Morality".
Permissible versus moral.
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I think that "permissible" and "moral" would be synonyms in a forum entitled, "Ethics and Morality".
Where in your example is the preemptive strike - the issue upon which this thread is focused?So ten year old Johnny just shot and killed his father, who was in the act of abusing Johnny's mother...was the killing of Johnny's father a moral act?
? What is your point? I have already stated that man's laws are always subordinate to God's laws.Permissible versus moral.
? What is your point? I have already stated that man's laws are always subordinate to God's laws.
Christians believe that God gave Moses the Ten Commandments; not the Ten Suggestions for Man's Consideration. Commands instruct those so commanded as to what is permitted (moral) and what is not permitted (immoral).
Everything in that image was perpetrated and supported by people who called themselves Christians.
As I've said, one of the big problems with divine command deontology is that it's hard to be sure just what God commands.
As to those who call themselves Christian, we have Christ's admonition in Matthew 7:21.Everything in that image was perpetrated and supported by people who called themselves Christians.
This thread only addresses two related and specific moral rights: the right to life and its corollary, the right to self-defense. Do you not deny that the right to life is a God given right?As I've said, one of the big problems with divine command deontology is that it's hard to be sure just what God commands.
This thread only addresses two related and specific moral rights: the right to life and its corollary, the right to self-defense. Do you not deny that the right to life is a God given right?
Johnny supposedly took preemptive action in order to protect his mother. So was his action moral? If so, at what point, and under what circumstances did Johnny's killing of his father become moral?Where in your example is the preemptive strike - the issue upon which this thread is focused?
?I keep saying it's a God-given privilege. If it were a right, it would be inherent, not God-given.
The father was, I assume, in the act of unjustly using violence against Johnny's mother. So, there is no preemptive strike option against one (the father) who is in the act.Johnny supposedly took preemptive action in order to protect the life of his mother. So was his action moral? If so, at what point, and under what circumstances did Johnny's killing of his father become moral?
If what is "in the mind" does not match reality then the actor is mentally impaired. The reality controls the analysis. The act is not preemptive.Keep in mind, that at this point I haven't actually specified what the father's "abuse" consists of, but in Johnny's mind his killing of his father is a preemptive action, so is it moral?
The story of little Johnny is meant to illustrate that preemptive strikes and the morality thereof are completely subjective. What's moral to you, may not be moral to someone else, and you have no definitive means of saying exactly where that moral boundary lies. Thus the morality of a preemptive strike lies completely within the mind of the preemptor.Where in your example is the preemptive strike - the issue upon which this thread is focused?
I did not specify violence. The abuse may simply have been emotional. Perhaps the father was simply refusing to talk to the mother. At what point does Johnny's preemptive action become moral?The father was, I assume, in the act of unjustly using violence against Johnny's mother.
Then your"Johnny's story" fails in its objective. Reality is singular and independent of the thinking mind. To claim otherwise is absurd.The story of little Johnny is meant to illustrate that preemptive strikes and the morality thereof are completely subjective. What's moral to you, may not be moral to someone else, and you have no definitive means of saying exactly where that moral boundary lies. Thus the morality of a preemptive strike lies completely within the mind of the preemptor.
And who's to say what the "reality" is. In Johnny's mind the reality may be that the threat to the mother may be very real, while in the father's mind no such threat actually exists.If what is "in the mind" does not match reality then the actor is mentally impaired. The reality controls the analysis. The act is not preemptive.
As I posted long ago in this thread, objective morality allows the determination of the morality of the act, not the culpability of the actor. Even if "Johnny" is completely exonerated due to his mental impairment, his act retains the same moral status.In Johnny's mind the reality may be that the threat to the mother may be very real, while in the father's mind no such threat actually exists.
I think we are at an impasse. One cannot debate productively with an extreme skeptic which the above post illustrates is your position.And who's to say what the "reality" is.
Reality may be singular, but having free will, our future actions are indeterminate. So the only reality that anyone has to go by is the one that they themselves create.Reality is singular and independent of the thinking mind.
... has nothing to do with this thread. Pls refrain from red herring fallacies.Reality may be singular, but having free will ...
Johnny is not mentally impaired.
You have now changed your example.He perceives a threat to his mother and he acts upon it.
Did you not read post #1. If so then reread the conditions offered that allow a preemptive strike.... how are you going to determine whether that action was moral or not?
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If God grants the "privilege" of life to all men then the "privilege" becomes a right to each man with respect to all other men. Are you saying that one man may take from another what God has granted to that man? Do you have a right to end the life of an innocent human being? If not, why not?