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Nebuchadnezzar II
Guest
I still have 2 more years of communion, but why do we take the Lord's supper?
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"But just as the Word enters the ear in order to strike our heart, so the rite itself the eye in order to move the heart. The effect of the Word and the rite is the same, as it has been well said by Augustine that a Sacrament is a visible word, because the rite is perceived by the eyes and is, as it were, a picture of the Word, signifying the same things as the Word" (Apology of the Augsburg Confession)
Jesus is speaking of belief. Lack of belief condems, not lack of communion...53Jesus said to them, "I tell you the truth, unless you eat the flesh of the Son of Man and drink his blood, you have no life in you.
36Whoever believes in the Son has eternal life, but whoever rejects the Son will not see life, for God's wrath remains on him." (John 3:36)
35Then Jesus declared, "I am the bread of life. He who comes to me will never go hungry, and he who believes in me will never be thirsty. (John 6)
It would probably be better to discuss this in the appropriate forum. I had no doctrine in mind with my comment other than the Lord's supper being more important than a take it or leave it proposition. I'm not much of a sacrament or institution type person, but I do know I need to obey the Lord and commune with Him.Rechtgläubig said:I am sorry to disagree raphe. John 6 is not speaking about the Lord's Supper.
If this is the case, lack of Communing results in damnation.
Jesus is speaking of belief. Lack of belief condems, not lack of communion...
I am not denying Christ's presence with the Sacrament, I am just disagreeing that John 6 speaks of a Sacrament Christ hadn't instituted yet.