The Lord's Day is Sunday.

[Bible Highlighter]

Yes they did! Anyone is free to call it the Lords day if they wish, and anyone is free to not call it the Lords Day if they wish, that is the liberty we have found in Romans 14!

To me every day is the Lords day! to you Sunday stands higher than the rest! I am fine with that and will defend your right to do that everyday!! Just don't take something not mandated in the Word and make everyone think that way!

The problem is that you have to break all rules of grammar and logic in order to make the “Lord's day” in Revelation 1:10 as referring to all days. That would be like somebody referring to Christmas day and then someone saying that all days are Christmas. But go ahead and believe as you wish.

 

[Bible Highlighter]

The 1st day of the week begins at Sabbath sundown (after the Sabbath is ended).

You are not telling me anything new here. I am already aware of this fact, and put this in my past chronologies I created over the years for the Passion Week.

 

[Bible Highlighter]

It is obvious you do not understand Greek or Hebrew.

And it's obvious you don't understand that we read nothing about in the New Testament about how we must learn some ancient and better language from GOD in order to understand His Word. It's ironic that the Scriptures were not continued to be preserved in the ancient Hebrew (and a little Aramaic), but they evolved or moved to another language (i.e. Greek with the New Testament Scriptures). Meaning, GOD did not stay stuck in the past, but He moved with the times because much of the world spoke Greek back then. I believe GOD also moves with the times today. He is not the GOD of the dead (i.e. of a dead language), but He is the GOD of the living. So why would I go to Biblical Hebrew and Biblical Greek (Which are dead languages that nobody can know with 100% certainty) to learn God's Word? I believe God preserved His Word in the world language today (Which is English) (Which fulfills the promise of Psalms 12:6-7 in the KJV) (Note: Modern Translations corrupt this passage).

For if you did you would know that your timeline is false according to the scriptures. There is no need for 72 hrs. You consider it the sign? A dead man in a grave? Happens everyday. Are you saying Yeshua lied when He said in 3 days or on the 3rd day? There are numerous reasons He could not have resurrected on the Sabbath at 3 PM. You believe what you need to, I will stick to the truth and scriptures...

Look buddy (Note: I say this in a loving tone). Three days and three nights is 72 hours.
Jesus said there are 12 hours in a day (John 11:9). Logical dictates it is the same for the night time. So that is 24 hours for one day, and one night.

12 x 2 = 24.

If we multiple 24 hours x 3, it = 72 hours.
It's pure Math. You can try and allegorize these days all you like, but I would not advise it. Jesus said He would be three day and three nights in the heart of the earth. I believe Him. I hope you do, too.

 

[nolidad]

didn't create the 7th day sabbath for Israel ... created it for mankind ... so Jesus himself says.

Mark 2:27
Berean Study Bible
Then Jesus declared, “The Sabbath was made for man (mankind), not man for the Sabbath.

Sorry, but teh context is with the Jewish people and not mankind in General. Jesus was saying the Sabbath was to bless men not be a burden, and that was only to the nation ISrael! If you go back to Leviticus, Exodus, and Deuteronomy as well as several other OT books, you will see that the Sabbath was part of the Covenant with Israel as a nation alone! Gentiles did not keep Sabbath, for they were not Jews! If it was binding on all mankind, one would have to conclude that at least some nation or tribe would honor it! But none of the nations know of the Sabbath because it was not commanded on man until Mt. Sinai which was for israel and their proselytes who wish to accompany them.

But the 7th day is also a type for the rest we enter when we receive Christ! We cease from our labors to gain righteousness and rest in the righteousness imputed to us by Jesus!

Here is the big passage that confirms what I say:

Exodus 31:12-18
King James Version
12 And the Lord spake unto Moses, saying,

13 Speak thou also unto the children of Israel, saying, Verily my sabbaths ye shall keep: for it is a sign between me and you throughout your generations; that ye may know that I am the Lord that doth sanctify you.

14 Ye shall keep the sabbath therefore; for it is holy unto you: every one that defileth it shall surely be put to death: for whosoever doeth any work therein, that soul shall be cut off from among his people.

15 Six days may work be done; but in the seventh is the sabbath of rest, holy to the Lord: whosoever doeth any work in the sabbath day, he shall surely be put to death.

16 Wherefore the children of Israel shall keep the sabbath, to observe the sabbath throughout their generations, for a perpetual covenant.

17 It is a sign between me and the children of Israel for ever: for in six days the Lord made heaven and earth, and on the seventh day he rested, and was refreshed.

18 And he gave unto Moses, when he had made an end of communing with him upon mount Sinai, two tables of testimony, tables of stone, written with the finger of God.

 

[nolidad]

Why not? He was alive for years, so he clearly had provisions. Those couldn't have included bread and wine and a few items for an alter? I see no reason to think that couldn't be the case.

So you are going to form an opinion based on what may or may not be? Do you really thinkthat is a sound way to form definitive opinions?

Besides John in wring this down did not add the definite article "the" (hos) if he did then we could discuss whether as a Jewish believer he was talking saturday or sunday! But it was written without a definite article so it is not defining a specific day but what kind of day it was. In English it would be said "I was in the Spirit on a lordy type day".

 

[BobRyan]

Rev 1:10 uses the feminine term Kuryaki. Literally Sunday in the Greek language. It's illogical to even argue against it.

Kuryaki is "Lord's" -- belonging to the Lord. Your suggestion makes it "I was in the Spirit on the Sunday day".. It is never used in the Bible as Sunday or as first day of the week.

1. belonging to the Lord
   
   
2. related to the Lord

Sorry but that's exactly what it says kyriaki hmera. Kyriaki is the feminine of Kurios. All days of the week in the Greek language are in the feminine except Σάββατο Which is in neuter. The word "day" is not built into the word of any day of the week in Greek.
See how the Lord's Day is written in the rest of the bible including OT Greek and see that Rev 1:10 has it written in the feminine as a specific day of the week. It's literally what greek Greek speakers call Sunday.

The question is not "what is it today" but "what was John's intended meaning"?

As pointed out - in Rev 1:10 DAY is present in text as "The Lord's Day".

In the Didache it is not there - it is merely "the Lord's".

Whoever wrote the Didache was using Greek as it was in John's day more than using it as it is used today.

 

[BobRyan]

That's a big club, and we're all in it.

As a result of natural dispersion and diffusion over more than 3,000 years, Abraham's genome is ubiquitous in the entire human race.

Genetics and mathematics concur.

And before going to that argument - what about Jeremiah 31:31-34? Who is the NEW Covenant made with according to Jer 31 and Hebrews 8:6-12?

The New Covenant promised to Israel and Judah in Jeremiah 31:31-34, is found fulfilled by Christ during the first century in Hebrews 8:6-13, and Hebrews 10:16-18, and specifically applied to the Church in 2 Corinthians 3:6-8, and Hebrews 12:22-24.

In Heb 8:6-12 we have a verbatim quote of the New Covenant found in Jer 31 and it is unchanged from its OT form.

IT is applied to the church because as Paul points out in Romans 2 "He is not a Jew who is merely one outwardly" and in Romans 9 "the children of the promise" are counted as the descendants of Abraham.

 

[BobRyan]

In English it would be said "I was in the Spirit on a lordy type day".

good thing we don't say such things in English

 

[BobRyan]

Mark 2:27
Berean Study Bible
Then Jesus declared, “The Sabbath was made for man (mankind), not man for the Sabbath.

Sorry, but teh context is with the Jewish people and not mankind in General.

on the contrary - it specifically points to mankind when saying "and not mankind made for the Sabbath" this text speaks to the "making of both" mankind AND the Sabbath which is found in Genesis 1-2:4 as all of Christ's listeners would have instantly recognized.

See Gen 2:1-3 as compared to Ex 20:11

 

[Yeshua HaDerekh]

And it's obvious you don't understand that we read nothing about in the New Testament about how we must learn some ancient and better language from GOD in order to understand His Word. It's ironic that the Scriptures were not continued to be preserved in the ancient Hebrew (and a little Aramaic), but they evolved or moved to another language (i.e. Greek with the New Testament Scriptures). Meaning, GOD did not stay stuck in the past, but He moved with the times because much of the world spoke Greek back then. I believe GOD also moves with the times today. He is not the GOD of the dead (i.e. of a dead language), but He is the GOD of the living. So why would I go to Biblical Hebrew and Biblical Greek (Which are dead languages that nobody can know with 100% certainty) to learn God's Word? I believe God preserved His Word in the world language today (Which is English) (Which fulfills the promise of Psalms 12:6-7 in the KJV) (Note: Modern Translations corrupt this passage).

Look buddy (Note: I say this in a loving tone). Three days and three nights is 72 hours.
Jesus said there are 12 hours in a day (John 11:9). Logical dictates it is the same for the night time. So that is 24 hours for one day, and one night.

12 x 2 = 24.

If we multiple 24 hours x 3, it = 72 hours.
It's pure Math. You can try and allegorize these days all you like, but I would not advise it. Jesus said He would be three day and three nights in the heart of the earth. I believe Him. I hope you do, too.

Translations are never as good as the originals, so thanks for proving my point...buddy

 

[eternomade]

I know the Reformed Presbyterians make a big point in only having their worship services on Sunday's. I have been told by 3 people that my worship on Saturday night is sinful. It truly is a bizarre idea. The Westminster Confession uses two verses, to show Sunday as the Lords day. Acts 20:7 and Revelation 1:10. I don't see that as enough evidence. I do believe the Sabbath is Saturday, but that worship to the Lord can and should be any day of the week.

I also looked into how the days worked 2000 years ago when this was written. It seems that the first day of the week would actually start on our Saturday at sundown and end on our Sunday at sundown. So technically, by the Westminster confession, The Lords day is Saturday night to Sunday night.

FWIW I am not Reformed but "Calvinist".

 

[nolidad]

The problem is that you have to break all rules of grammar and logic in order to make the “Lord's day” in Revelation 1:10 as referring to all days. That would be like somebody referring to Christmas day and then someone saying that all days are Christmas. But go ahead and believe as you wish.

Well no you would not have to break any rule of grammar.

John's phrase does not have the definite article "the" (hos) in the originals so it is not calling a specific day!

You had mentioned "the Lords table", "the Lords supper" , so those are a specific table and supper! But John simply said he was in the spirit on lords day which does not specify a specific day but just describes what kind of day it was. Though it is atrocious English grammar, it would be better translated as " a lordy day" (it does not have the possesive either as it appears in the English). That is the grammar behind Johns phrase!

 

[nolidad]

good thing we don't say such things in English

Agreed, but that is the thought if translated correctly! How to define lordy is unknown but that is the construct we have.

 

[nolidad]

on the contrary - it specifically points to mankind when saying "and not mankind made for the Sabbath" this text speaks to the "making of both" mankind AND the Sabbath which is found in Genesis 1-2:4 as all of Christ's listeners would have instantly recognized.

See Gen 2:1-3 as compared to Ex 20:11

God sanctified it in Genesis, and ordered Israel to obey it a sign between God and Israel.

Ex. 31:

12 And the Lord spake unto Moses, saying,

13 Speak thou also unto the children of Israel, saying, Verily my sabbaths ye shall keep: for it is a sign between me and you throughout your generations; that ye may know that I am the Lord that doth sanctify you.

14 Ye shall keep the sabbath therefore; for it is holy unto you: every one that defileth it shall surely be put to death: for whosoever doeth any work therein, that soul shall be cut off from among his people.

15 Six days may work be done; but in the seventh is the sabbath of rest, holy to the Lord: whosoever doeth any work in the sabbath day, he shall surely be put to death.

16 Wherefore the children of Israel shall keep the sabbath, to observe the sabbath throughout their generations, for a perpetual covenant.

17 It is a sign between me and the children of Israel for ever: for in six days the Lord made heaven and earth, and on the seventh day he rested, and was refreshed.

There is only assumption, but no evidence that anyone prior to the Israelite's after Mount Sinai ever rested on the seventh day! Scripture prior to that only mentions that God sanctified the Sabbath.


And God made the sabbath for man to enjoy- but that is defined by Exodus 31! It was never issued as a worldwide rule anywhere in Scripture.

The context of Jesus speaking is with Israel and whether the Sabbath was designed people or people for the Sabbath (as was the teaching of the Pharisees). And that was for Jews only! N o other nation has ever been recorded to keep Sabbath.

But if it is for all mankind as a requirement, do you do any labor on Sabbath or saturday?

Do you make your spouse do labor on Sabbath by cooking of cleaning up after meals?

 

[Bible Highlighter]

Well no you would not have to break any rule of grammar.

John's phrase does not have the definite article "the" (hos) in the originals so it is not calling a specific day!

You had mentioned "the Lords table", "the Lords supper" , so those are a specific table and supper! But John simply said he was in the spirit on lords day which does not specify a specific day but just describes what kind of day it was. Though it is atrocious English grammar, it would be better translated as " a lordy day" (it does not have the possesive either as it appears in the English). That is the grammar behind Johns phrase!

My Bible does not say Lordy day. Believe as you wish. I cannot convince you of what I believe the text plainly says.

 

[Knee V]

So you are going to form an opinion based on what may or may not be? Do you really thinkthat is a sound way to form definitive opinions?

Besides John in wring this down did not add the definite article "the" (hos) if he did then we could discuss whether as a Jewish believer he was talking saturday or sunday! But it was written without a definite article so it is not defining a specific day but what kind of day it was. In English it would be said "I was in the Spirit on a lordy type day".

I am not forming an opinion. I believe what has always been believed. I was questioning the basis of your assertion.

 

[ViaCrucis]

John was writing down a vision He was given, not going to church! There most likely was no church on Patmos where he was a prisoner.

I suspect that the impression that Patmos was this desolate, uninhabited island isn't accurate. As the island had been inhabited for at least three thousand years by John's time, Rome simply apparently liked to use it as a place to exile people.

We shouldn't necessarily assume then that John was in complete isolation. John's stay on Patmos may even have borne the fruit of conversion.

There is no reason to simply assume that St. John wasn't sharing his faith and life together with others, even there in exile.

-CryptoLutheran

 

[BobRyan]

God sanctified it in Genesis,

true.

And Ex 20:11 makes the case that - that act alone makes it binding.

Ex 20
11 For in six days the Lord made the heavens and the earth, the sea, and all that is in them, and rested the seventh day. Therefore the Lord blessed the Sabbath day and hallowed it.

Gen 2
2 And on the seventh day God ended His work which He had done, and He rested on the seventh day from all His work which He had done. 3 Then God blessed the seventh day and sanctified it, because in it He rested from all His work which God had created and made.

so much so that even gentiles are singled out for a blessing as they choose not to profane it.

Isaiah 56:6
6 “Also the foreigners who join themselves to the Lord,
To minister to Him, and to love the name of the Lord,
To be His servants, every one who keeps from profaning the sabbath
And holds fast My covenant;

 

[nolidad]

My Bible does not say Lordy day. Believe as you wish. I cannot convince you of what I believe the text plainly says.

Nor does my bible say that, but that is the intent of the words in the original.. If John had used the definite article "the" I would agree with you. But He didn't so he was not specifying a day but describing the kind of day day he had the vision!

BTW KJV is my version of choice! but it is not infallible.

 

[nolidad]

I am not forming an opinion. I believe what has always been believed. I was questioning the basis of your assertion.

Well the bible never calls Sunday the Lords Day! Nor did God give the church permission to move the Sabbath from Saturday to Sunday as is also taught in some liturgical churches.

Sunday is called that by tradition, not by command.