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The Law of Moses and its commandments : Forever unfit for purpose

expos4ever

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It is beyond astonishing that some people believe that, even though we have the Holy Spirit within, we still need the Law.

How impotent would this Spirit be if it could not provide moral guidance?
 
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HARK!

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It is beyond astonishing that some people believe that, even though we have the Holy Spirit within, we still need the Law.

If the Ruach Ha'Kodesh is leading you; you will not stray from the law.
 
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expos4ever

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If the Ruach Ha'Kodesh is leading you; you will not stray from the law.
You are not dealing with my point and are misleading (perhaps without intent) others.

First of all, you will stray far from the Law of Moses since, presumably, you are not stoning adulterers and you are not sacrificing animals. But that is another debate.

I suspect you are trying to imply that we still need to look to the Law for moral guidance. This is completely at odds with what Paul writes and this explains why you appear to question the authority of Paul (in other threads).

Let me be crystal clear: yes, if you have the Spirit, you will not be murdering, or committing adultery. But the Law is no longer needed - it has been clearly set aside.
 
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Kaon

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Why would the Most High renege on His agreements? Why would the Most High make law "unfit" for man?
 
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klutedavid

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A very good summation of the whole truth that the scripture projects. This presentation lacks the application of an interpretation to the scripture which so often masks the real truth. Well done and your understanding of the scripture is solid.
 
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LoveGodsWord

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You have evaded my argument. And nothing you posted shows that we still need the Law. Yes, the Law did give knowledge of sin, and it may still may be able to so.
Ok dear friend let me humor you. Please prove to me how I have evaded your argument when I have proven context that you claim I did not provide. Also please show me where I have ever said we are justified by the law which you are claiming that I know I have never said (strawman)? I will wait. If you cannot prove the above why are you making claims and arguments no one is making? I directly answered through the scriptures all aspects of your argument. Now please show me how I have not.
But we don't need to refer to the Law, we have the Spirit to guide us now: But now we have been released from the Law, having died to that by which we were bound, so that we serve in newness of the [d]Spirit and not in oldness of the letter.
Yes and no. God's Spirit works through the Word of God not outside of the Word of God. God's Spirit works through the written Word of God as it is the Spirit of truth and God's Word is truth that the Spirit of God works through *JOHN 6:63; JOHN 17:17. If you have no Word you have no faith *ROMANS 10:17; If you have no Word and no Faith than you have no Spirit as the Spirit of God works through the Word of God not outside of it as it is the power behind the Word of God in those who believe *1 JOHN 5:4; ROMANS 1:16. No one has God's Spirit if they do not have God's Word and believe it as the Spirit works through the Word of God as we believe. According to the scriptures no one has God's Spirit if they are knowingly breaking anyone of God's 10 commandments and neither do they know God. Sin (breaking God's LAW) is the difference between the children of God and the children of the devil *1 JOHN 3:6-10.

Ok let's look at your claim that the "but now" means that there is no more law by adding in the context your leaving out.

ROMANS 3:19-31
[19], NOW WE KNOW THAT WHAT THINGS SOEVER THE LAW SAID, IT SAID TO THEM WHO ARE UNDER THE LAW: THAT EVERY MOUTH MAY BE STOPPED, AND ALL THE WORLD MAY BECOME GUILTY BEFORE GOD.
[20], THEREFORE BY THE DEEDS OF THE LAW THERE SHALL NO FLESH BE JUSTIFIED IN HIS SIGHT: FOR BY THE LAW IS THE KNOWLEDGE OF SIN.

Note: that from the earlier post Paul shows that all the world is guilty before God and proves both JEW and GENTILE are all under the law guilty before God of sin and has spent all this time showing that we cannot be justified by the law because through the law is the kbowledge of what sin is v9-20.

[21], BUT NOW THE RIGHTEOUSNESS OF GOD WITHOUT THE LAW IS MANIFESTED, BEING WITNESSED BY THE LAW AND THE PROPHETS.
[22], EVEN THE RIGHTEOUSNESS OF GOD WHICH IS BY FAITH OF JESUS CHRIST TO ALL AND ON ALL THEM THAT BELIEVE: for there is no difference:
[23], FOR ALL HAVE SINNED, AND COME SHORT OF THE GLORY OF GOD;
[24], BEING JUSTIFIED FREELY BY HIS GRACE THROUGH THE REDEMPTION THAT IS IN CHRIST JESUS:
[25], WHOM GOD HAS SET FORTH TO BE A PROPITIATION THROUGH FAITH IN HIS BLOOD, TO DECLARE HIS RIGHTEOUSNESS FOR THE REMISSION OF SINS THAT ARE PAST, through the forbearance of God;
[26], To declare, I say, at this time his righteousness: that he might be just, and the justifier of him which believes in Jesus.
[27], Where is boasting then? It is excluded. By what law? of works? No: but by the law of faith.
[28], THEREFORE WE CONCLUDE THAT A MAN IS JUSTIFIED BY FAITH WITHOUT THE DEEDS OF THE LAW.
[29], Is he the God of the Jews only? is he not also of the Gentiles? Yes, of the Gentiles also:
[30], Seeing it is one God, which shall justify the circumcision by faith, and uncircumcision through faith.
[31], DO WE THEN MAKE VOID THE LAW THROUGH FAITH? GOD FORBID: YES, WE ESTABLISH THE LAW.

As shown above when looking at all the context we can see that when PAUL is saying "BUT NOW" in v21 he is not saying God's LAW is abolished he is saying we are not justifed by the law we are justified by faith. This is proven beyond all doubt in v31 so there is no confusion on the subject when PAUL states unequivically that faith does not abolish God's law it establsihes God's law.

...................

CONCLUSION
: Context matters and you did not provide any that has led you do an incorrect interpretation of "BUT NOW" being applied to God's 10 commandment being abolished when the context show that the "BUT NOW" is in reference to being justified by faith without the works of the law. There is a difference. As can be shown above nothing has been evaded. All the scriptures and context has been laid out for all to see showing why your interpretation is in error.

Hope this is helpful.

Blessings.
 
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LoveGodsWord

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You are making my case for me - "I would not have known" sin without the Law.Past tense. Past tense.

Nonsense. Your making the case for me. All sin is past tense. We have to break God's LAW before sin is committed.
 
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LoveGodsWord

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Holy Spirit. Simple.
God's Spirit works through the Word of God not outside of the Word of God. God's Spirit works through the written Word of God as it is the Spirit of truth and God's Word is truth that the Spirit of God works through *JOHN 6:63; JOHN 17:17. If you have no Word you have no faith *ROMANS 10:17; If you have no Word and no Faith than you have no Spirit as the Spirit of God works through the Word of God not outside of it as it is the power behind the Word of God in those who believe *1 JOHN 5:4; ROMANS 1:16. No one has God's Spirit if they do not have God's Word and believe it as the Spirit works through the Word of God as we believe. According to the scriptures no one has God's Spirit if they are knowingly breaking anyone of God's 10 commandments and neither do they know God. Sin (breaking God's LAW) is the difference between the children of God and the children of the devil *1 JOHN 3:6-10.

Hope this is helpful
 
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Josheb

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Good op but awfully long. Spotty in a couple of places but overall good.

What do you do with the facts a) nearly everything Jesus taught can be found in the OT, and b) the epistolary repeatably and often appeals to the Law of Moses?
 
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Josheb

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Nonsense. Your making the case for me. All sin is past tense. We have to break God's LAW before sin is committed.
that is an incomplete view of sin. The Bible lists three specifics and one overarching condition for sin.

Sin is lawlessness (1 Jn. 3:4).
Sin is any unrighteousness (1 Jn. 5:17).
Sin is anything not done in faith (Rom. 14:23).
Sin is imperfection (Mt. 5:48).​

So, no, you don't have to break God's law before a sin is committed. The word "sin" literally means "miss the target." The target is holiness (separateness) and perfection, and we are not holy and perfect in any way shape or form nor at any moment in our entire existence apart from Christ.
 
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Josheb

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If you have no Word you have no faith *ROMANS 10:17
How then was Abraham saved? The gospel was preached to him and he was justified by faith and made righteous but he had no written word.


You do understand Romans 10:17 was written by a redeemed and regenerate person to already redeemed and regenerate people about people already living in a covenant relationship with God and not atheists who don't own Bibles? Yes?
 
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LoveGodsWord

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Actually dear friend all lawlessness is sin (Compare 1 JOHN 3:4 with other parrallel translations). Lawlessness means without law (disobedience to God's law). The bible definition of sin is breaking anyone of God's 10 Commandments *JAMES 2:10-11 and not believing God's Word *ROMANS 14:23. So yes dear friend if we break anyone of God's 10 commandments we commit sin. This is shown by PAUL also in ROMANS 7:7.
 
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LoveGodsWord

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Before the written Word of God there was the spoken Word of God *GENESIS 3:1-3; 9; 11-19 8:15; 9:8; 24:7; 31:11 etc). God's people were saved in exactly the same way that we are today although the process is different of course (no more sin offerings that pointed to JESUS) and that is by faith *see HEBREWS 11 as it is written ABRAHAM OBEYED MY VOICE AND KEPT MY CHARGE, MAY COMMANDMENTS, MY STATUTES AND MY LAWS. *GENESIS 26:5

Hope this helps.
 
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Josheb

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Great argument but two points are worth making.

First, the third premise in the "syllogism" should read, "3. If we have no knowledge of needing a Savior we have no salvation..."

Second, the same guy who declared he would not know sin were it not for the law also wrote,

Romans 2:12-16
"12For all who have sinned without the Law will also perish without the Law, and all who have sinned under the Law will be judged by the Law; 13for it is not the hearers of the Law who are just before God, but the doers of the Law will be justified. 14For when Gentiles who do not have the Law do instinctively the things of the Law, these, not having the Law, are a law to themselves, 15in that they show the work of the Law written in their hearts, their conscience bearing witness and their thoughts alternately accusing or else defending them, 16on the day when, according to my gospel, God will judge the secrets of men through Christ Jesus."

So the written law is not necessary to know you've sinned. God's law is written on the human heart. Creation itself is moral and there are consequences for sin both temporally and eternally. Just a few sentences earlier Paul had written all men "suppress the truth in unrighteousness, because that which is known about God is evident within them; for God made it evident to them. For since the creation of the world His invisible attributes, His eternal power and divine nature, have been clearly seen, being understood through what has been made, so that they are without excuse." (Rom. 1:18-20). That part about "since the creation" would be before any written ever word existed.
 
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HARK!

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(CLV) Mt 5:19
"Whosoever, then, should be annulling one of the least of these precepts, and should be teaching men thus, the least in the kingdom of the heavens shall he be called. Yet whoever should be doing and teaching them, he shall be called great in the kingdom of the heavens.
 
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HARK!

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Sin is imperfection (Mt. 5:48).

Some how there were scales on my eyes when I read past this little gem for all these years.

(CLV) Mt 5:48
You, then, shall be perfect as your heavenly Father is perfect.

It's like a missing bookend.


(CLV) 1Jn 3:9
Everyone who is begotten of God is not doing sin, for His seed is remaining in him, and he can not be sinning, for he is begotten of God.
 
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pasifika

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Hello LGW, why do we need to know sin if like sin is our master? Christ is what we need to know and everything that is Not of that knowledge is sin...
The law only show us our sins...well we do not need to know sin because we already infected by it But we need to know our Savior so we can know how to get saved...
 
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Josheb

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We don't need the Law anymore - we have the Spirit.
False dichotomy.

The fact of the NT is the OT laws and precepts are frequently and repeatedly applied to the NT ekklesia, both the Jewish convert and the Gentile. When Paul and James argue for the abrogation of the law he specifies two conditions: justification and righteousness. This is true of Paul's exposition in by Romans and Galatians as well as James. Both authors appealed to the OT as well. In other words, the writers who stated the law was annulled as a means of righteousness and justification (which are now commuted to us in Christ) also repeatedly asserted the law as a measure of Christian conduct. ALL Scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for training in righteousness; so that the man of God may be adequate, equipped for every good work.

The logically necessary conclusion of what you're arguing is that we don't need that which is inspired by God and profitable to make us adequate and equipped. Surely you don't believe that. (???)
 
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