Even the Gentiles had a moral imperative written in them, as Romans 2 points out:
12 For as many as have sinned without law will also perish without law, and as many as have sinned in the law will be judged by the law 13 (for not the hearers of the law are just in the sight of God, but the doers of the law will be justified; 14 for when Gentiles, who do not have the law, by nature do the things in the law, these, although not having the law, are a law to themselves, 15 who show the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience also bearing witness, and between themselves their thoughts accusing or else excusing them) 16 in the day when God will judge the secrets of men by Jesus Christ, according to my gospel.
But even as mankind (as the Gentiles were known before the first covenant estranged them) had a code in their conscience from imagery in the likeness of their Creator, this same passage plainly tells us that
the Gentiles never received the ten commandments. They didn't have a written code to abide by. The result of their position outside the covenant God made with Israel was that they would perish without hope as long as the first covenant held tenure. See Ephesians 2:11-16 and Galatians 3:10-14, as both passages explain this relationship of the Gentiles apart from God.
- Moses testified in Deuteronomy 4:8 via a rhetorical question that no other group of people on earth had the ten commandments.
- Moses testified in Deuteronomy 5:2-3 that the covenant Israel received didn't exist prior to his own generation - and then he proceeds to list the ten commandments as that covenant.
You have repeatedly contradicted Moses, as well as the definition for the first covenant in the law, and the definition of the new covenant defined in Hebrews.
You also have disregarded the specific points that I raised to your attention in an earlier post:
You have not responded to what law Romans 3:31 claims the author established. You will not find anything about the sabbath in the Genesis account, whereby the author demonstrates Abraham was imputed righteousness without performance to any commandment, even that of circumcision.
The "us" addressed by that law have all died, and there are none claiming to be under that covenant while claiming to be a Christian in the new covenant. Your notion is patently false.
The meaning of the verb denoting a command to perform something that can't be documented in the past (at least prior to the manna experience a month earlier) does not in any way imply anything from the Genesis record.
The seventh day was God's rest, and Hebrews 4:4 quotes directly from Genesis 2:2, and the entire chapter shows the
sabbatismos of God's "
My rest" remained as a promise of "
another day" those keeping the sabbath for 1500 years didn't attain. The sabbath itself didn't exist until nearly a million days after the seventh day.
- The Genesis account doesn't record a repetitive day observed by any human.
- Exodus 20:11 clearly delineates the seventh day apart from the sabbath.
- Hebrews 4 calls the seventh day of creation God's "My rest" that remained to be attained by a people who were already observing the sabbath.
- Moses testifies that the ten commandments were unknown to the generation previous to his own in Deuteronomy 5:2-3, and lists the sabbath as a memorial of deliverance from Egyptian bondage in Deuteronomy 5:15.
- Nehemiah 9:13-14 attributes the origin of the sabbath with Moses.
Find where the book of the law describes cursing the ground as the penalty for murder. Your notion is laughable at best.
Thank you for addressing the 'sound bite' theology issue used so commonly here. I have had the same experience in another thread 
by unpacking a whole passage only to be met with avoidance and then individual verses quoted from all over the Bible making the Bible say what it does not actually say.
