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The Kalam Cosmological Argument

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No, it's not.
It's a physical phenomena.

Nuh-uh, it's metaphysical, which doesn't mean at all that it's spiritual. It has applications to physical systems, just as it does to mathematical or purely abstract ones, like symbolic logic where there's no physical referent.

That is totally meaningless.
Causality implies a sequence of events.
One happening after the other.
An effect can only take place if its cause happens before it.

No, mathematics and other abstractions like symbolic logic don't imply sequences of events; they're timeless, which again doesn't mean they're spiritual or anything like that. And a timeless entity can definitely be before any set whose members work within time, just like zero exists prior to the number one. To speak about something being logically prior (rather than chronologically prior) means that when it causes something (here the universe), its causing is simultaneous with the effect. Appealing to cause and effect as limited to a sequence of events is begging the question here.

Hmmm. That's not clear to me at all.

An infinite timeline still moves forward. An infinite series of causes and effects, still has causes and effects happening. Why couldn't the universe be one of them?

Also, by the very nature of what we understand Time to be, there is no need to advance a dichotomy that states "either a deity, or an infinite regress".
Time as we know it came about during the creation of the universe. At T = 0, to be exact.

An infinite timeline moves forward only if you assume you're in the present moment, P, when there's negative infinity behind you and infinity in front of you. That's what needs to be proven with an actual infinite (infinite regress) existing within time. An infinite set of causes never allows for moment P; again, it's like trying to jump out of a bottomless pit.

Nobody is saying this proves a deity, only that it opens up the door metaphysically for one. It logically proves a first cause.

No no... only acceptance the "god" part requires faith.

Faith underpins our axioms and other philosophical presuppositions, including those underpinning (and rarely questioned) science. Faith isn't an exclusively spiritual deal without special pleading.

I think people should only go as far as the evidence can take them.
Beyond that, it is simply a matter of being ignorant and learning to cope with that ignorance. Instead of simply inventing nonsense and pretending that it cures that ignorance.

That statement is self-negating, given that you can't prove that standard empirically. Standards are presupposed, not empirically proven.
 
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DogmaHunter

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Nuh-uh, it's metaphysical, which doesn't mean at all that it's spiritual. It has applications to physical systems, just as it does to mathematical or purely abstract ones, like symbolic logic where there's no physical referent.

You're just not making any sense to me.
Causality is a phenomena of physics. I don't see how it can be said to not be.
Pretty much anything can be expressed in abstract terms and symbolics. But nearly all of that is meaningless, unless it is applied to physical reality.

As I said, "A causes B" has no meaning until it is identified what A and B are.
Also, "A causes B", even without identifying what A and B are, still refers to a sequences of events. B happens after A. No matter how abstract you wish to look at it, it sill implies an arrow of time flowing in a specific direction. That direction being "forward".

No, mathematics and other abstractions like symbolic logic don't imply sequences of events; they're timeless, which again doesn't mean they're spiritual or anything like that.

The word "causes" IS a temporal word. "A" happens and as a result of that event, "B" happens. After A.

There is no way around that.
No matter how abstract you wish to express it. It will still imply an arrow of time, moving forward.

And let us not forget that in the context of this thread here, we ARE talking about physical causation.

And a timeless entity can definitely be before any set whose members work within time, just like zero exists prior to the number one.

What is a "timeless entity"?

To speak about something being logically prior (rather than chronologically prior) means that when it causes something (here the universe), its causing is simultaneous with the effect. Appealing to cause and effect as limited to a sequence of events is begging the question here.

It's not begging any question. It is what the word means.
"prior" = "before".
Before = a reference to a time frame.

You're making about as much sense here as if someone would say "logically north of the north pole". It makes no sense.

Also, feel free to share a real-world example of something that is "logically" prior as opposed to "chronologically".

An infinite timeline moves forward only if you assume you're in the present moment, P, when there's negative infinity behind you and infinity in front of you.

I don't get the "only" part. An infinite timeline moves forward, just like any other timeline. There just is no beginning or end to it.
However, this doesn't seem to be a subject worthy of pondering, since we know for a fact that time isn't infinite in the past, since it is an intrinsic property of the universe and we know that the space-time continuum had a beginning at T = 0. And there is no logical "before" that.


That's what needs to be proven with an actual infinite (infinite regress) existing within time. An infinite set of causes never allows for moment P; again, it's like trying to jump out of a bottomless pit.

I disagree. A timeline that moves eternaly forward in an infinite series of causes and effects, will have causes and effects taking place. An infinite amount of them, even.
I don't see why the "current moment" couldn't be one of them.
But, as I said, I think it's a moot point anyway, since we know time doesn't stretch infinitly into the past.

Nobody is saying this proves a deity, only that it opens up the door metaphysically for one. It logically proves a first cause.

Sure. But that first cause took place IN the universe, at T = 0.
It's essentially the first event of the universe. The universe itself can not be an effect, at least not in the sense that we understand causes and effects, since that would require for an event to take place "before" time exists.

Perhaps it's just a terminology problem, because concepts where time doesn't actually exist are as-good-as impossible to wrap our temporal brains around.

Whatever the answer is to the question about the origin of the universe, it sure will be an answer that strikes us as nothing short of extremely bizar.

These origins are simply unknown at this time.
My objection to nonsense arguments like Kalaam, is that it tries to use our everyday experience and knowledge from within the universe and pretends it can be extrapolated to an "environment" where that universe does not exist.

That just doesn't make any sense. It simply isn't valid reasoning.
You can't use phenomena of physics of the universe that manifest IN the universe and simply assume that these phenomena also apply outside of it (whatever "outside of it" means, btw... that might not be sensible either).

No universe = no physics of the universe = no phenomena that are the result of those physics.

Faith underpins our axioms and other philosophical presuppositions, including those underpinning (and rarely questioned) science. Faith isn't an exclusively spiritual deal without special pleading.

Examples?
And while you are at it... perhaps try to define what you mean by "faith" as well...
Because the basal assumptions of science (reality is real, you can learn about reality, models with predictive power are better then models without such) are a very different species then the "faith" that theists have in their religions.

That statement is self-negating, given that you can't prove that standard empirically. Standards are presupposed, not empirically proven.

Standards are empirical. They are obtained and refined through historical experience. They are empirically supported by the continued success of their use.

I can look back and evaluate the various methodologies, standards and approaches of problem solving and consider their success rate.

For example, we (= humans) have tried superstition. It wasn't succesfull.
We have tried consulting the gods by looking at flight path of birds. It wasn't successfull.
We have tried consulting the stars by looking at their positions relative to the planets of the solar system. It wasn't succesfull.

Then, after vast series of failure after failure after failure... we tried looking at the evidence according to specific standards. And suddenly we were able to land robots on Mars.

It seems that methodology is a good way to solve problems.
 
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bhsmte

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Definitely.

Which is why I think the OP is incomplete. There should be a subpoint for the first point that says that an infinite regress (actual infinite) is impossible, given that it never allows us to reach the present moment, therefore a finite past is logically necessary and an eternal universe is logically problematic, which fits with a creator but doesn't prove much at all.

Note my use of "logical" here; there could be some point at which logic breaks down and the principle of sufficient reason becomes, well, insufficient. Chomsky has one of my favorite philosophy lectures by anyone ever on Youtube called "The Machine, The Ghost, and the Limits of Understanding", with one of my favorite lines: "Philosophers often appear to intend to want to get answers about humans that we can't get about insects." His point, possibly applicable here, is that it's evolutionarily necessary to have limits and scope when speaking of human faculties, including reason, and therefore we can't pretend to be "angels" with our belief that all of reality (which would include lots of quantum mechanics stuff and lots of metaphysical stuff, not to mention lots of God stuff) is comprehensible.

But if we admit that logic doesn't work for us when speaking of our discussion, it really becomes a matter of faith, so it's faith in God or faith in no God, go with your presuppositions. I don't think you need to go that far.

IMO, it does not require faith to conclude a God likely does not exist. Just as it does not require faith to conclude many other things likely do not exist.
 
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IMO, it does not require faith to conclude a God likely does not exist. Just as it does not require faith to conclude many other things likely do not exist.

It requires faith to suspend the principle of sufficient reason (i.e., logic). I'm not using faith in some spiritual sense; the spiritual sense arguably gets its meaning from secular sources.
 
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Let's start bit by bit.

You're just not making any sense to me.
Causality is a phenomena of physics. I don't see how it can be said to not be.
Pretty much anything can be expressed in abstract terms and symbolics. But nearly all of that is meaningless, unless it is applied to physical reality.

As I said, "A causes B" has no meaning until it is identified what A and B are.
Also, "A causes B", even without identifying what A and B are, still refers to a sequences of events. B happens after A. No matter how abstract you wish to look at it, it sill implies an arrow of time flowing in a specific direction. That direction being "forward".

Causality is a phenomenon observed in physics. Causality also exists in philosophy, symbolic logic, and many other fields. Therefore it isn't limited to physics. "A causes B" has total meaning -- as A and B; that's the whole gist of symbolic logic, which can work without referents. And again, Hume made it clear that causality isn't anything we ever really observe; we only infer cause and effect from what we observe, which he said reflects an ingrained sense of causality which we would call instinctual. You can infinitely zoom in on the gap between cause and effect and never find it.

The word "causes" IS a temporal word. "A" happens and as a result of that event, "B" happens. After A.

There is no way around that.
No matter how abstract you wish to express it. It will still imply an arrow of time, moving forward.

A cause can have temporal dimensions while being simultaneous with its effect if the cause itself is logically prior to the effect

And let us not forget that in the context of this thread here, we ARE talking about physical causation.

We're talking about a non-physical entity (which should be understood metaphorically, as "entity" implies boundaries) causing something in time, which means that the act of causing is logically prior to, and simultaneous with, the effect; "logically prior" is not the same thing as chronologically prior, just as "A causes B" isn't chronologically prior in symbolic logic.

Let's hash this away first.
 
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bhsmte

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It requires faith to suspend the principle of sufficient reason (i.e., logic). I'm not using faith in some spiritual sense; the spiritual sense arguably gets its meaning from secular sources.

I know you are not using faith in the spiritual sense. I see no logical sufficient reason to believe any personal Gods exist, none, nada. Therefore, I don't need faith to conclude they likely don't exist. Just as, I am not suspending logical sufficient reason when I don't believe people have been abducted by aliens.
 
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I know you are not using faith in the spiritual sense. I see no logical sufficient reason to believe any personal Gods exist, none, nada. Therefore, I don't need faith to conclude they likely don't exist. Just as, I am not suspending logical sufficient reason when I don't believe people have been abducted by aliens.

I'm not talking about God in this context. I'm talking about giving up the utility of logic to accept an eternal universe, or a universe composed of an infinite number of causes. William Rowe is at least one philosopher of religion who has written on whether we're justified in accepting or rejecting the principle of sufficient reason. I think it's conceptually okay to do so, because the universe is screwy and our reasoning and logical abilities might reflect, at the end of the day when dealing with very complicated matters at least, defective faculties. BUT, the moment we reject reasoning and logic, and we're talking about non-observable phenomena (i.e., really abstract stuff), we're left with faith.

I personally see nothing threatening at all about realizing that faith underpins our daily activities and even the use of our reasoning and logic -- seeing how we assume (i.e., trust or confidence) that these processes work (i.e., have relevance to reality). It's the folks who think faith is only a religious or spiritual term that are bothersome to me.
 
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bhsmte

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I'm not talking about God in this context. I'm talking about giving up the utility of logic to accept an eternal universe, or a universe composed of an infinite number of causes. William Rowe is at least one philosopher of religion who has written on whether we're justified in accepting or rejecting the principle of sufficient reason. I think it's conceptually okay to do so, because the universe is screwy and our reasoning and logical abilities might reflect, at the end of the day when dealing with very complicated matters at least, defective faculties. BUT, the moment we reject reasoning and logic, and we're talking about non-observable phenomena (i.e., really abstract stuff), we're left with faith.

I personally see nothing threatening at all about realizing that faith underpins our daily activities and even the use of our reasoning and logic -- seeing how we assume (i.e., trust or confidence) that these processes work (i.e., have relevance to reality). It's the folks who think faith is only a religious or spiritual term that are bothersome to me.

Of course non religious people use faith in parts of their life. I have faith the Cubs will win the World Series this year.
 
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Ed1wolf

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Ed1wolf said:
No, causality is a law of logic.

dh:No, it's not. It's a phenomena of the (newtonian) physics of the universe.

According to Aristotle it is. And it is based on phenomena of the physics of the universe.

ed: Which may or may not require such a context.

dh: No, it does - by definition.
Causes happen before effects.

Basically Time is just the relative positions of objects to each other. Nothing about that prevents causality. But anyway given that there is evidence from String theory that there is at least one more dimension of time than our time dimension, God could have caused the universe using that time dimension.

ed: Actually there is evidence for more than one dimension of time. But even if there is only one dimension of time that does not prove causality requires time.

dh: As said, causality requires time by definition. Causes happen before effects.
It is necessarily a temporal phenomena.

See above.

ed: Other religions believe that the universe was created from some preexisting material that could potentially be detected, but Christianity teaches that it was created from something not detectable by humans. This appears to have been confirmed by the BB theory too.

dh: That's a complete dodge from the point I made.

How?

ed: A genetic bottleneck is where inbreeding occurs and can eventually lead to extinction.

dh: A genetic bottleneck is a stituation where there is only very very little genetic diversity. Which inevitably is the case when population sizes shrink to an all-time low.

Which is exactly what supposedly happened during the biblical flood.
This means that ALL life should have a genetic bottleneck in the same period.
This universal genetic bottleneck does NOT exist.

Not if the original pair of organisms was extremely genetically diverse and there is ancient DNA evidence that confirms this for both animals and humans.

ed: But if the species has a high level of genetic diversity

dh: When population size shrinks to only a handfull of breeding pairs, then there is almost no genetic diversity. The point exactly.

Not necessarily, see above.

ed: , then a bottleneck is less likely to occur or if it does occur it takes much longer for it to occur. Look it up.

dh: Dude.... genetic bottlenecks are inevitable when the population shrinks to only a handfull of breeding pairs. And in biology, a "handfull of breeding pairs" means a population of a couple hundreds or thousands. Let alone 2 to 14, as is supposed to be the case in the biblical flood.

Not if those breeding pairs are highly diverse genetically. There is a case where a single pair of wild sheep became isolated on an island and have reproduced and produced an entire population on the island with no signs of a genetic bottleneck. I will have to look up the reference later.
 
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Ed1wolf

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ed: How can impersonal random processes create or work for a specific goal, such as sight?

dh: Through natural selection.

That tells me nothing. Explain HOW natural selection can do such a thing.

ed: Please provide a non-biological example of such a thing.

dh: LOL!!!!

So, you want me to give you a non-biological example of....a biological process?
Tell you what, I'll give you such an example as soon as you give me a non-physical example of gravity.

That is not what I said, I asked for a non-biological example of something that appears to be designed but in fact is not. Actually I can even provide you with an example. An arrow head shaped rock. How does an archaeologist tell the difference between an arrowhead and an arrowhead shaped rock?

ed: The Biblical model is also testable.

dh: Some of the stories are indeed testable, yes.
Like Noah's flood. It predicts genetic bottlenecks, which don't exist. So...yeah.

No, it does not predict genetic bottlenecks, you only assume that if the flood occurred then a bottleneck would occur but you are assuming the wrong starting conditions. See above about the great genetic diversity of ancient animals and humans.

ed: If any of the things I mentioned above such as the universe having a beginning, expanding, and winding down were found by science to be not true then that would falsify the Biblical model. Also, if some of the other characteristics of the universe that I mention above were proven not to be true then that would also falsify it. So plainly it is testable.

dh: I'll be more impressed if you can give predictions before science makes discoveries.
Such retro-active re-interpretations aren't valid.
The biblical model predicts that over time more and more scientific discoveries will shown design in the universe. If the biblical model is wrong then science will find less and less evidence for design.

ed: No, see above things that can be tested. The biblical model can explain those things that you mention above also.

dh: They can not.
Assertions aren't explanations.

What assertions? I have not made any.

ed: An anecdote that was empirically proven, the doctors found a shoe on the roof matching the patients description.

dh: Adding additional claims to the anecdote, doesn't change the fact that it's just an anecdote.

But there are multiple examples of such events. So it is not just one anecdote.

ed: But none are backed up by empirical evidence.

dh: Exactly.
So there are no such things as little green men. But there is some evidence for the mind functioning without a brain.
 
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Ed1wolf

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I would like to see your reference. I believe I recall Aristotle only talking about non-contradiction and excluded middle, but I suppose a good reference could show otherwise.

Classic logic, as I recall, only has properties like:

-Excluded middle
-Noncontradiction
-Duality
-Monotonicity of entailment
-Commutativity of conjunctio
Aristotle said that causality is a logical extension of the law of non-contradiction. He says this because for something to create itself is a violation of the law of non-contradiction.
 
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Yekcidmij

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Aristotle said that causality is a logical extension of the law of non-
contradiction.

Do you have a reference for that?

...for something to create itself is a violation of the law of non-contradiction.

How so?
 
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Ed1wolf

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It's still anecdotal.
I am not denying that it is anecdotal but compared to the anecdotes about alien abduction that dogma hunter was citing, there is much more evidence and more reliable sources. The NDEs that I was referring to were all recorded by medical professionals and scientists.
 
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Ed1wolf

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Do you have a reference for that?
Aristotle is referenced in Philosophy: A Contemporary Perspective, edited by Hoffman and Gendin. He is also referenced in RC Sproul's book Classical Apologetics.



yek: How so?
Because something can not BE and NOT BE at the same time and in the same relationship.
 
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Yekcidmij

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Aristotle is referenced in Philosophy: A Contemporary Perspective, edited by Hoffman and Gendin. He is also referenced in RC Sproul's book Classical Apologetics.

But you don't have an actual reference from Aristotle on your previous claim?

Because something can not BE and NOT BE at the same time and in the same relationship.

I don't know that anyone is claiming causality "is and is not at the same time and in the same relationship." I think the tough question is whether or not this particular variation of the Principle of Sufficient Reason is true.

In standard set theory you can't have sets that are members of themselves, as this leads to problems.

If the set of "whatever begins to exist" ⊆ "things that have causes," but the set of "things that have causes" itself began to exist, then either the set is a member of itself, and Russell's Paradox isn't far behind, or there are things that begin to exist but don't have a cause (one of which would be the set of things that have a cause) and so premise (1) of Kalam is false.

Maybe another option could to be deny that the set of all things that have causes itself began to exist. In this case you would have a strange scenario where things have causes but never begin to exist. This might go toward undermining the causal principle in premise (1) too.

I suppose there would be one more alternative route in proposing some sort of non-standard set theory, or some other route, but that would seem to disqualify Kalam's premise (1) as being obviously true or taken as a given.

In any case, it seems difficult to be able to evaluate premise 1 of Kalaam as being true or just taken at face value as a given.

http://science.kennesaw.edu/~sellerme/sfehtml/classes/math4381/sets.pdf
 
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Do you think it is a legit question to ask; what caused this deity to exist?
Perhaps, however if it is an eternal God, its necessary existance is intuitive.
 
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Ed1wolf

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Ed1wolf said:
Aristotle is referenced in Philosophy: A Contemporary Perspective, edited by Hoffman and Gendin. He is also referenced in RC Sproul's book Classical Apologetics.

yek: But you don't have an actual reference from Aristotle on your previous claim?

Not an exact reference but it comes from Aristotle's book Logic.

ed: Because something can not BE and NOT BE at the same time and in the same relationship.

yek: I don't know that anyone is claiming causality "is and is not at the same time and in the same relationship." I think the tough question is whether or not this particular variation of the Principle of Sufficient Reason is true.

No, I didn't say they were, that is how causality is derived from the law of non-contradiction.

yek: In standard set theory you can't have sets that are members of themselves, as this leads to problems.

If the set of "whatever begins to exist" ⊆ "things that have causes," but the set of "things that have causes" itself began to exist, then either the set is a member of itself, and Russell's Paradox isn't far behind, or there are things that begin to exist but don't have a cause (one of which would be the set of things that have a cause) and so premise (1) of Kalam is false.

Maybe another option could to be deny that the set of all things that have causes itself began to exist. In this case you would have a strange scenario where things have causes but never begin to exist. This might go toward undermining the causal principle in premise (1) too.

I suppose there would be one more alternative route in proposing some sort of non-standard set theory, or some other route, but that would seem to disqualify Kalam's premise (1) as being obviously true or taken as a given.

In any case, it seems difficult to be able to evaluate premise 1 of Kalaam as being true or just taken at face value as a given.
All of human experience has confirmed that all effects have causes. QM MAY be an exception but that has not been proven. There is evidence that even QM has a cause either the observer or some as yet undiscovered cause.
 
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Yekcidmij

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All of human experience has confirmed that all effects have causes. QM MAY be an exception but that has not been proven. There is evidence that even QM has a cause either the observer or some as yet undiscovered cause.

Of course, I didn't even bring up QM. I brought up something else - a defeater for "all of human experience has confirmed..." Well, it seems there may be one thing in human experience that has dis-confirmed. Boiled down, it appears that there may be a self-referential problem in the premise. It seems similar to a problem in Leibniz's version of the Cosmological argument.

Point out where I'm wrong and I'll just drop it.
 
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