THE GREATEST QUESTION OF ALL TIME: WHAT IS FAITH ?

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Eudaimonist

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Sorry if me seeing an impending train wreck gives the impression that I am trying to one-up you. I know something you don't know.

You claim to know something I don't. You don't necessarily know something I don't. This is why I bring up the subject of epistemology.

All I am trying to do is separate things long enough for you to see that you came to a "Christian" forum, and you might want to listen instead of preach your own beliefs.

I have been listening. You have not said anything to me worth saying. You just beat your chest like Tarzan and insist that you know the Truth. I have no reason to think that you do.

Excuse me, if I thought you might like to hear the truth that Christians have here for you. If that is not why you are here...why don't you leave?

I've been here for philosophical discussion. Yes, some Christians are philosophical. I am beginning to see that you are not.

If you would like to reconsider where you are and what might be here for you, maybe you should apologize and start over by asking questions.

*I* should apologize? Sorry, but I have nothing to apologize for. You are really full of yourself.

And I did ask questions, just not the ones you desired or expected. If you don't want to answer my questions, that is fine. We may consider this a mismatch of interests.

We are experts in a field that you do not fully understand. Is that not reasonable?

No, that is not reasonable. I have no good reason to think that you are an expert in anything. You've already bombed with your misunderstanding of Einstein, what else have you gotten wrong?


eudaimonia,

Mark
 
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EatingPie

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Hello again. I have lots going on, some personally inflicted of the bad sort, so sorry I'm late.

Let me restate my point position (minus the elephant): "I see "evidence" and "proof" as two different things. So I would say Faith relies on evidence but not proof. And proof moves us from Faith to knowledge (full understanding)." I believe this is what you're attempting to discredit: evidence and proof are different, and lead to different things.

Okay. Now I see the problem. You are using an idiosyncratic definition of "proof" that appears unique to you.
Have I ever said how much I enjoy fallacious arguments? It really makes it so much easier to respond. You are attacking me, rather than my argument (it's false because it's unique to me). Unique and untrue are not logically related.

In law, proof represents all the evidence one presents to establish a claim as true.
Yep. And I agree, as you have defined evidence and proof as different things; one used to establish the other. Just like I did. And you explained my elephant example perfectly. Awesome!

So I don't see a problem.... um... uhoh...

The standard of proof is the amount of evidence/proof the plaintiff or prosecuting attorney must present to win.
The standard of proof is the amount of proof presented? You've used the fallacy of self-definition: Proof is the amount of proof used to prove something.

I would actually agree with this hypothetical if you didn't use circular reasoning -- remove "evidence/proof" and make it simply "evidence."

It seems to me that you don't want to recognize evidence and proof as different things, so you join them as if they are one thing: "evidence/proof." Then later, you cite the dictionary which clearly states proof is made up of evidence. I find this a bit nonsensical. Are they the same or not? If so, why different words? If not, why use the conjunction to link them?

Faith is based on evidence. Evidence is different than proof.

Common standards are "preponderance" (more likely than not), which generally applies in civil trials, and "reasonable doubt," which generally applies in criminal trials.
Appeal to Numbers.... "common standards" Whose standards? Common where?

You appear to be limiting "proof" to the evidence necessary to establish something conclusively, a standard beyond even that of reasonable doubt. If this were what people meant by proof, then it would make "standards" of proof meaningless, for there could be only one. What could it possibly mean to prove something by a preponderance of the proof when proof necessarily entails proving it to the level that no doubt is possible?
Well, at least I didn't define "proof" as "proof" and "evidence" both! :)

More seriously though... You actually misinterpreted me, so your summary of my words is incorrect. (And dictionary.com defines proof as something established conclusively -- you quoted it!)

Re-reading my post, you can see I said, "And what of the person who needs to see the tusks in order to declare "proof!" vs. a person who must see the trunk before they've proven the elephant?"

I probably should have stated this explicitly, so my bad: I meant this illustration to convey that evidence can be deemed sufficient means to constitute proof at different times for different people. We can call that "conclusive" if we want. We can call it "beyond a reasonable doubt." But my point was that different people can have different standards of what constitutes "proof."

This is also the common definition used by the lay public.
You have to know what I'm going to say here! Starts with an F.... :)

I'm not trying to be mean or flame or anything, but these really are fallacies that you're using. Your argument holds no logical grounds when you do so.

You have previously expressed your preference for definitions from "Dictionary.com" so here are the top two definitions of "proof" from that site:

1. evidence sufficient to establish a thing as true, or to produce belief in its truth

2. anything serving as such evidence

http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/proof?s=t

You can see that they are consistent with how proof is used in the law.
Yes I agree with this definition. It does not contradict anything in my previous posts.

By the way, "sufficient to establish a thing as true" is also called conclusive.

And evidence is defined as "(b) something that furnishes or tends to furnish proof : means of making proof : medium of proof."
That's Merriam Webster. "Furnish," "means of making," "medium..." all point to evidence being a building block of proof. Not proof itself.

Let us now return to the Dictionary.com definition of "faith" with which you previously agreed: "belief that is not based on proof."
...
Applying the universally accepted meaning of proof rather than your uniquely personalized one, this means belief that is not based upon evidence. Applying this definition, your entire argument crumbles.
Dude, seriously!!! Two fallacies in one. Are you trying to make a reasoned argument, or just play a numbers game? Given the amount of fallacies here, I think it's numbers! :p

Actually, this fallacy I will address. Your argument falls apart here. There is no provable or even demonstrable "universally accepted meaning of proof." You cite your fallacious appeal to numbers to conclude that belief is not based on evidence -- you cite a logical fallacy as support of your claim. Thus your claim is illogical, and itself either false or just non-sustainable.

Next probably could have just cited the dictionary definition, as that would not be fallacious -- the only problem then? I agreed with it. :)

You define knowledge as belief based on proof, but once again, this is not what people mean by knowledge. Knowledge reflects justified true belief.
Yes. And that's what you're saying too. Knowledge reflects proof: justified true belief.

Ordinarily, that knowledge would be justified by evidence/proof. But those relying on faith propose that knowledge can be justified through a different epistemological framework. The problem is that they never adequately define that framework or demonstrate that it is even remotely reliable -- much less that it is more reliable than an epistemology based upon evidence/proof.
Let's talk left field! Or not. :)

I have proposed no such "different epistemological framework." I have merely stated that "The Bible defines Faith as being based on Evidence." Same framework, different day!

In my previous post, I suggested you read through the thread on "Logic and Faith." All the points you raise are addressed in that thread. If after reading it, you feel you still have a plausible argument for your position, please let me know how you would counter all the objections raised there.
LOL. Well, this is quite an insult. Not that I'm offended, but find it more than funny.

Did you count your fallacies? I pointed them out to help. :p

Now, even though you attempted to define evidence as proof, you failed: they are not the same thing. Evidence is a means to proof (Webster). But it is not proof itself... not until there is "evidence sufficient to establish such a thing as true."

So evidence remains evidence, proof proof, and faith, well...

Faith is the evidence of things not seen. as the Bible says.

-Pie
 
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lumberjohn

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Pie.

If you find my definition circular, then you clearly do not understand the meaning of "standard." Try Dictionary.com.

And it appears by your final statement you have proven my point -- that faith represents a substitute for evidence.

Your ultimate position, however, is incoherent. For how can faith BE the evidence of things not seen and also be BASED on evidence? See what I mean? Incoherent
 
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EatingPie

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Hi.

I don't see how you've reconciled the two.
Maybe because... I didn't? :)

I got Romans thing wrong. Let me try again, citing some of the things you refer to... which help a lot!

Two things I can say up front: "He who has ears, let him hear..." is an admonition about the importance of what is said. "Listen up!" being similar, but a somewhat poor substitute. The other: when we see "the word" in the Bible, it can mean either scripture itself, or Jesus himself.

When I studied this through scripture (like, two years ago or so mind you), my understanding of faith was that it was a gift from God. It was a gift that was described through parable as being a "seed". This seed was sown by the Word itself. Thus ... in order for a person to have "faith", it needed to be given to them by the Word, sewn into their being.
Here's Christ's explanation of the parable from the NIV, Luke 8:

11“This is the meaning of the parable: The seed is the word of God. 12Those along the path are the ones who hear, and then the devil comes and takes away the word from their hearts, so that they may not believe and be saved. 13Those on the rocky ground are the ones who receive the word with joy when they hear it, but they have no root. They believe for a while, but in the time of testing they fall away. 14The seed that fell among thorns stands for those who hear, but as they go on their way they are choked by life’s worries, riches and pleasures, and they do not mature. 15But the seed on good soil stands for those with a noble and good heart, who hear the word, retain it, and by persevering produce a crop.
NIV uses a small "w" in word, so obviously Jesus meant scripture. :) Me being facetious, but that's really what I see. But it can work either way: coming to faith by reading the Bible and experiencing God, or meeting Jesus. However, faith can be a fickle thing, so not all who develop faith will keep it until the end. I'm reminded of the 9 people Jesus healed, but only 1 returned to say thank you.

When the Word became flesh (i.e. Jesus), and Jesus actually spoke to people concerning such things ... He highlighted these concepts in the parable of the sower, for example. He said specifically, that those who would have ears to hear would hear. He quoted Isaiah concerning their ears/eyes not being in use. It seemed rather obvious to me, He wasn't speaking of physical eyes and physical ears ... rather He was speaking of some kind of other "eyes and ears". So even though He was speaking physical words that people could physically hear ... he still commented on them not hearing/seeing what He said.
Okay, the context immediately before the above:

9His disciples asked him what this parable meant. 10He said, “The knowledge of the secrets of the kingdom of God has been given to you, but to others I speak in parables, so that,

“ ‘though seeing, they may not see;
though hearing, they may not understand.’a
I believe that last part is Isaiah. I don't know exactly what Jesus means here. My feeling comes from being an author myself. I write stories with themes that don't often get seen right off the bat. People see the story, but they don't immediately "see" the theme. Later, they (hopefully!) have an "ah ha!" moment, and it hits them.

I think this is one of Jesus' goals with parables, and what I believe he's saying: They won't see or understand immediately but later it'll have an impact.

His parables parallel sowing the seed -- he's not giving people faith, he's sowing the seed -- giving them the word (or Word) so that they might come to develop faith. Then again, just by sowing the seed of faith, it's not at all a reach to say the opposite: he is giving the gift of faith. But don't take that to mean we're free of responsibility: there must still be a human response; the seed fell all over the place, but it only stuck with a few. How does it stick? Why does it stick? Maybe Hebrews can help us there, but first...

Add all of that up, and it seems to me that "So then faith comes by hearing, and hearing by the word of God." is explained, by Jesus (the Word) in the parable of the sower. Faith (a gift from God) comes by hearing (not with physical ears) and this hearing comes by the word of God (i.e. Jesus, whether Jesus is in the flesh or not). What faith actually *is* and what it looks like in action, is perhaps the focus of Hebrews 11. But "how it comes" to someone, I'm not seeing that as being the focus of Hebrews 11:1.

All of that to say, I don't see how your statement of this: "The Bible does indeed state that faith comes from exploring evidence," reconciles with any of the above. I'm not seeing where the Bible states what you are saying it states in how "faith comes".
When I spoke of Paul's verse, I went and checked the context.

Romans 10 from the NASB.
11 For the Scripture says, “Whoever believes in Him will not be [h]disappointed.” 12 For there is no distinction between Jew and Greek; for the same Lord is Lord of all, abounding in riches for all who call on Him; 13 for “Whoever will call on the name of the Lord will be saved.”

14 How then will they call on Him in whom they have not believed? How will they believe in Him whom they have not heard? And how will they hear without a preacher? 15 How will they preach unless they are sent? Just as it is written, “How beautiful are the feet of those who bring good news of good things!”

16 However, they did not all heed the [j]good news; for Isaiah says, “Lord, who has believed our report?” 17 So faith comes from hearing, and hearing by the word [k]of Christ.

[k]Or concerning Christ
I like the no distinction part, so I threw that in as a bonus. :)

Before, I said that Paul is admonishing those to go out and preach, telling people the gospel. I missed the mark there, because I overemphasized v 14. J. Vernon McGee (who sounds exactly like you'd expect from his name) gives a brief summary of Romans 10 in his notes & outlines:

1. Present state [condition] of Israel — lost, vv. 1-4
Reason: Christ is the end of the law for righteousness.
2. Present standing of Israel — same as Gentiles, vv. 5-12 “For there is no difference.”
3. Present salvation for both Jew and Gentile — hear and believe the gospel, vv. 13-21
Let's run with Vernon for a moment. He says that Paul speaks about salvation here. And that salvation relies on hearing and believing the gospel. So Paul is not defining faith per se, he's explaining the course of salvation. Those who "believe in" and those who "call on" the name of the Lord are saved. That's where verse 14 comes in. He asks how people can believe without even hearing first... And then says... Faith comes from hearing. Hearing what? Hearing by the word concerning Christ (v 17).

To put it another way, how can you be "saved" if you never hear about Christ? Not an admonition to preach the gospel, but an explanation of the imperative of the gospel in the role of salvation.

I don't see this as contradictory to Hebrews. They aren't mutually exclusive. It's not one or the other, this or that. It's both.

For me, I would say that hearing about Jesus is a form of evidence. In my own experience, the more I "hear" about Christ -- and the more I explore who he is, how he fits in with the history of humanity -- I see more and more evidence of the reality of Christ, and who he claimed to be. I have other forms of evidence that I rely upon as well, but I must admit, I don't know if I could "call upon the name of the Lord" without having heard about Jesus in the first place.
Again ... this was from my attempt a couple of years ago to understand "faith" through a scriptural lens. I rarely reference scriptures with Christians, but I am trying to a bit more lately :)
This post constitutes the most Bible references I've ever quoted, so no judgement here! :)

-Pie
 
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EatingPie

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Pie.

If you find my definition circular, then you clearly do not understand the meaning of "standard." Try Dictionary.com.
When you use a word to define the same word, that is circular; just as you used proof to define proof.

And it appears by your final statement you have proven my point -- that faith represents a substitute for evidence.
How does it "prove" your point? Especially when your point is incorrect. :p

Your ultimate position, however, is incoherent. For how can faith BE the evidence of things not seen and also be BASED on evidence? See what I mean? Incoherent
Incoherence, says the man who speaks in fallacy. :p

You're really just playing a rhetorical game here. Let me illustrate by asking your question in a different way.

How can proof BE evidence and also BASED ON evidence?

From the dictionary:
Proof: 1. evidence sufficient to establish a thing as true, or to produce belief in its truth.
2 anything serving as such evidence: "what proof do you have?"

-Pie
 
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lumberjohn

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Pie,

Both of the definitions you cite use evidence as a synonym for proof, which only supports my point.

You seem fond of calling any argument for which you have no adequate response a logical fallacy, but I'm afraid that doesn't get you off the hook. Aside from the fact that you seem to have no idea what a true logical fallacy is, you fail to recognize that calling something such doesn't move you any closer to establishing your point
 
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EatingPie

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Pie,

Both of the definitions you cite use evidence as a synonym for proof, which only supports my point.
Nope. Not true.

Only one uses evidence as a synonym (as "BEING" evidence):
2 anything serving as such evidence: "what proof do you have?"

The other defines proof as BASED ON evidence:
1. evidence sufficient to establish a thing as true, or to produce belief in its truth.

You seem fond of calling any argument for which you have no adequate response a logical fallacy, but I'm afraid that doesn't get you off the hook. Aside from the fact that you seem to have no idea what a true logical fallacy is, you fail to recognize that calling something such doesn't move you any closer to establishing your point
I believe you referred me to some sort of discussion of Logic and Faith. My response at this point would be "physician heal thyself" and heed your own advice.

The only reason I call your arguments fallacies? Because they are. I've even cited the exact fallacies by name: you have a penchant for Appeal to Numbers... because, well, everybody knows the universally accepted definition of Appeal to Numbers. :D :D :D

I have also replied to some of your fallacies, so I am not merely using a ploy. Evidence -- nay, Proof! from my previous post. :p

Your fallacy (emphasis and parenthetical added):
Let us now return to the Dictionary.com definition of "faith" with which you previously agreed: "belief that is not based on proof."
...
Applying the universally accepted meaning of proof [Appeal to Numbers] rather than your uniquely personalized one, [Ad Hominen] this means belief that is not based upon evidence. Applying this definition, your entire argument crumbles.
My response:
Dude, seriously!!! Two fallacies in one. Are you trying to make a reasoned argument, or just play a numbers game? Given the amount of fallacies here, I think it's numbers!

Actually, this fallacy I will address. Your argument falls apart here. There is no provable or even demonstrable "universally accepted meaning of proof." You cite your fallacious appeal to numbers to conclude that belief is not based on evidence -- you cite a logical fallacy as support of your claim. Thus your claim is illogical, and itself either false or just non-sustainable.
So there you have it. Two fallacies in one sentence. And my reply that points out the fallacies, and still addresses them. Exactly what you said I didn't do.

I would also appreciate you reading my posts before responding to them. Based on the above, it certainly seems you haven't.

-Pie
 
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TillICollapse

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Hi.


Maybe because... I didn't? :)

I got Romans thing wrong. Let me try again, citing some of the things you refer to... which help a lot!

Two things I can say up front: "He who has ears, let him hear..." is an admonition about the importance of what is said. "Listen up!" being similar, but a somewhat poor substitute. The other: when we see "the word" in the Bible, it can mean either scripture itself, or Jesus himself.


Here's Christ's explanation of the parable from the NIV, Luke 8:


NIV uses a small "w" in word, so obviously Jesus meant scripture. :) Me being facetious, but that's really what I see. But it can work either way: coming to faith by reading the Bible and experiencing God, or meeting Jesus. However, faith can be a fickle thing, so not all who develop faith will keep it until the end. I'm reminded of the 9 people Jesus healed, but only 1 returned to say thank you.


Okay, the context immediately before the above:


I believe that last part is Isaiah. I don't know exactly what Jesus means here. My feeling comes from being an author myself. I write stories with themes that don't often get seen right off the bat. People see the story, but they don't immediately "see" the theme. Later, they (hopefully!) have an "ah ha!" moment, and it hits them.

I think this is one of Jesus' goals with parables, and what I believe he's saying: They won't see or understand immediately but later it'll have an impact.

His parables parallel sowing the seed -- he's not giving people faith, he's sowing the seed -- giving them the word (or Word) so that they might come to develop faith. Then again, just by sowing the seed of faith, it's not at all a reach to say the opposite: he is giving the gift of faith. But don't take that to mean we're free of responsibility: there must still be a human response; the seed fell all over the place, but it only stuck with a few. How does it stick? Why does it stick? Maybe Hebrews can help us there, but first...


When I spoke of Paul's verse, I went and checked the context.

Romans 10 from the NASB.

I like the no distinction part, so I threw that in as a bonus. :)

Before, I said that Paul is admonishing those to go out and preach, telling people the gospel. I missed the mark there, because I overemphasized v 14. J. Vernon McGee (who sounds exactly like you'd expect from his name) gives a brief summary of Romans 10 in his notes & outlines:


Let's run with Vernon for a moment. He says that Paul speaks about salvation here. And that salvation relies on hearing and believing the gospel. So Paul is not defining faith per se, he's explaining the course of salvation. Those who "believe in" and those who "call on" the name of the Lord are saved. That's where verse 14 comes in. He asks how people can believe without even hearing first... And then says... Faith comes from hearing. Hearing what? Hearing by the word concerning Christ (v 17).

To put it another way, how can you be "saved" if you never hear about Christ? Not an admonition to preach the gospel, but an explanation of the imperative of the gospel in the role of salvation.

I don't see this as contradictory to Hebrews. They aren't mutually exclusive. It's not one or the other, this or that. It's both.

For me, I would say that hearing about Jesus is a form of evidence. In my own experience, the more I "hear" about Christ -- and the more I explore who he is, how he fits in with the history of humanity -- I see more and more evidence of the reality of Christ, and who he claimed to be. I have other forms of evidence that I rely upon as well, but I must admit, I don't know if I could "call upon the name of the Lord" without having heard about Jesus in the first place.

This post constitutes the most Bible references I've ever quoted, so no judgement here! :)

-Pie
Rather than respond line by line, I'll bring up a few points as I see them:

* The Greek Interlinear I just referenced shows the word for "word" (lowercase) used in Luke 8 is the same word used for "Word" (uppercase) in John 1: G3056 "logos". So obviously Jesus meant scripture ? Hmm.
* The part you reference concerning Isaiah, "Though seeing they may not see," etc ... to which you say: "I don't know exactly what Jesus means here" ... my understanding from the scriptures (again, like a couple of years ago when I tried to study these things) was the following:

There is an "effect" that the reading of spiritual "Law" can have on the hearer, and this effect causes a covering of the heart ---

2 Corinthians 3:13 We are not like Moses, who would put a veil over his face to prevent the Israelites from seeing the end of what was passing away. 14 But their minds were made dull, for to this day the same veil remains when the old covenant is read. It has not been removed, because only in Christ is it taken away. 15 Even to this day when Moses is read, a veil covers their hearts. 16 But whenever anyone turns to the Lord, the veil is taken away. 17 Now the Lord is the Spirit, and where the Spirit of the Lord is, there is freedom. 18 And we all, who with unveiled faces contemplatea]">[a] the Lord’s glory, are being transformed into his image with ever-increasing glory, which comes from the Lord, who is the Spirit.

It was my understanding, that the "Law" was a spiritual "thing". Not just words, but it had a spiritual effect, and this effect was a negative effect: covering of the heart, ultimately some kind of spiritual death, it empowered "sin", etc. (Romans 7). The effect of the Law on such a person would be "seeing they won't see, hearing they won't hear," etc. If a person turned to Christ (i.e. the Logos, Word, etc) then the effect was taken away. This circles back around to the "Those who have ears to hear, let them hear," and why I understood it was pointing to something spiritual. The reading of the Law, and/or "quoting of God" IOW, had the potential to cause that negative "spiritual" effect. I don't see if having anything to do with, "They won't get this immediately, but later it will sink in what I was trying to say." It seemed to me it was a divisive and catalytic thing, a "literal spiritual" response. Not a literary ploy.

Anyways, that's how I read it.

* Concerning whether or not someone can, in so many words, recognize Christ before they hear about Christ, or experience Christ before they are aware of what they are experiencing, there are those who may argue with you there. I've spoken with believers previously who did claim that a person can experience God/Christ/etc, and not have heard about them first. I've known believers who believed that Christ was capable of revealing Himself to people and telling them His name, etc.

* Overall, my post was directed at your statement of "The Bible does indeed state that faith comes from exploring evidence," and how I didn't see anywhere the Bible stated that nor supported that. In your response, the feeling I get is that you're twisting things here and there to make that fit ... which is typical imo of the way most people attempt to "understand" scripture: they project onto it, cherry pick, use it as a mirror to see what they hope is there, etc. Having said that, I'm not bringing up scriptures in order to claim one interpretation is correct over another, as I don't typically appeal to scriptures as "evidence" lol, however as I said previously, I'm trying a bit more lately to "speak" that language, and see where it may lead. So I tried that here, with you. Thanks for humoring me, I appreciate it :)
 
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ScottA

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But you do possess this power correct?

By the way, can you answer my questions in post #194?
No, I do not possess the power of God. I do have the all powerful God within me, so anything is possible. But I cannot claim to possess Him.

Lastly, can you demonstrate this knowledge as reliable?
No. There is only one means of showing the infinite knowledge of God to be true, and it can only come from Him (just as I received it). Incidentally, that is where the term "believe" comes from...which is not my position at all. I "know" what I am saying to be the truth.

The best indication that what I am saying is true, it that there is only one tread of knowledge down through all of history that keeps unfolding the same truth without contradiction. Each is a witness to the greater truth, just as mine is.
 
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ScottA

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Let's start with what you've witnessed that is "supernatural" and also what you are able to demonstrate and/or do.
Easier said than done. I wrote a book about it...but it's too much to post here. Long story short, I called out to a God I did not know existed, and He answered. In doing so, I specifically asked what life was all about, for answers. Like I said, He answered.
 
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ScottA

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You claim to know something I don't. You don't necessarily know something I don't. This is why I bring up the subject of epistemology.



I have been listening. You have not said anything to me worth saying. You just beat your chest like Tarzan and insist that you know the Truth. I have no reason to think that you do.



I've been here for philosophical discussion. Yes, some Christians are philosophical. I am beginning to see that you are not.



*I* should apologize? Sorry, but I have nothing to apologize for. You are really full of yourself.

And I did ask questions, just not the ones you desired or expected. If you don't want to answer my questions, that is fine. We may consider this a mismatch of interests.



No, that is not reasonable. I have no good reason to think that you are an expert in anything. You've already bombed with your misunderstanding of Einstein, what else have you gotten wrong?


eudaimonia,

Mark
Okay, now I see the problem. I traced your posts back until early June...and this is the only question I found:

"Source?"

My answer: God (Einstein...was just to get your attention).
 
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TillICollapse

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Easier said than done. I wrote a book about it...but it's too much to post here. Long story short, I called out to a God I did not know existed, and He answered. In doing so, I specifically asked what life was all about, for answers. Like I said, He answered.
Ah, I see.
 
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SteveB28

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Easier said than done. I wrote a book about it...but it's too much to post here. Long story short, I called out to a God I did not know existed, and He answered. In doing so, I specifically asked what life was all about, for answers. Like I said, He answered.

In what format were your 'answers' transmitted? Did you hear a voice, did a mysterious finger write on a wall? An unlikely series of events? A dream?

How do you know you were answered?
 
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ScottA

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In what format were your 'answers' transmitted? Did you hear a voice, did a mysterious finger write on a wall? An unlikely series of events? A dream?

How do you know you were answered?
I had what some would call a religious experience. I would call it biblical. In simple terms, it might be called a dream, but that would not be accurate. I would have to say that I was "taken up", and shown the answers to my questions: I was in my body/in the world, then I was out for a time, then I was back. When I came back, I was changed, everything is different. Before that I was (as they say) walking in darkness (so to speak), after...well, I would have to say, walking in the light.
 
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TillICollapse

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I had what some would call a religious experience. I would call it biblical. In simple terms, it might be called a dream, but that would not be accurate. I would have to say that I was "taken up", and shown the answers to my questions: I was in my body/in the world, then I was out for a time, then I was back. When I came back, I was changed, everything is different. Before that I was (as they say) walking in darkness (so to speak), after...well, I would have to say, walking in the light.
If you were describing this experience to a neurologist or neuroscientist, would they be able to distinguish your experience from a dream or an hallucination ? What evidence would you offer up (obviously, anecdotal at this point) that would help distinguish your experience from a dream ?
 
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DogmaHunter

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I had what some would call a religious experience. I would call it biblical. In simple terms, it might be called a dream, but that would not be accurate. I would have to say that I was "taken up", and shown the answers to my questions: I was in my body/in the world, then I was out for a time, then I was back. When I came back, I was changed, everything is different. Before that I was (as they say) walking in darkness (so to speak), after...well, I would have to say, walking in the light.

You think you are explaining yourself, but in reality you are just making it even more obscure and vague then it already was.

So far, you seem to be describing a "feeling" or actual dream.

Are you aware that sometimes (most of the time, actually) people "feel" and "dream" things that aren't true?

How to differentiate those false feelings and dreams from your supposedly "true" feelings and dreams?

Mind you, I don't deny that you felt or dreamed something. I'm merely suggesting to you that from our side (since we can't climb in your head), it certainly looks like it's immensly more probably that you are mistaken.
 
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