The final supper verse the Seder

Yeshua HaDerekh said:

Shavuah tov. More like "conclusion" or "ending"? However, I see nothing regarding the letting go of a prisoner then. I could see a similarity regarding the azazel and Yom kippur though...Yeshua and Bar Abba...

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daq said:

Brenton, (LXX), renders εξοδιον as a release in some places but not all.

Lev 23:36 LXX (Brenton)
36 Seven days shall ye offer whole-burnt-offerings to the Lord, and the eighth-day shall be a holy convocation to you; and ye shall offer whole-burnt-offerings to the Lord: it is a time of release, ye shall do no servile work.

Numbers 29:35 LXX (Brenton)
35 And on the eighth day there shall be to you a release: ye shall do no servile work in it.

But in Deuteronomy 16:8 Brenton renders it as a holiday for some reason: likely because he did not understand the association between the appointed times of the first month and the appointed times of the seventh month, (Yom haKippurim included, as well as Sukkot).

Ask yourself why κατα is found in the following statements:

Matthew 27:15 T/R
15 κατα δε εορτην ειωθει ο ηγεμων απολυειν ενα τω οχλω δεσμιον ον ηθελον

Mark 15:6 T/R
6 κατα δε εορτην απελυεν αυτοις ενα δεσμιον ονπερ ητουντο

Luke 23:17 T/R
17 αναγκην δε ειχεν απολυειν αυτοις κατα εορτην ενα

Does this really just mean "at the feast"??? What else may κατα mean in this context? Are the authors being intentionally vague to the point of cryptic? By the overwhelming amount of study, commentary, and debate surrounding the passion narratives, I would say that, yes, it is painfully obvious that they are being intentionally vague to the point of cryptic in quite a few places.

Why would they do that? Well, because we are supposed to know the Torah, and if not, we are being forced back to the Torah, (and Prophets, and Writings), if we wish to truly understand. In this manner the authors glorify both the Father and His Son: and anyone who has heard, and has learned from the Father, comes to the Son, (John 6:45).

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Yeshua HaDerekh said:

Not sure I see it that way. This happened within context of the 14th...

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dfw69 said:

I believe the scriptures are leavened so I don’t believe they ate the Passover . The disciples may have thought they were going to eat the Passover with Jesus but Jesus would die on the 14th not after nor any other day afterwards .

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daq said:

Three prayers in Gethsemane, three nights, (and thus three days).

Matthew 26:34
34 Jesus said unto him, Verily I say unto thee, that this night, before the rooster crow, thou shalt deny me thrice.

Mark 14:30
30 And Jesus saith unto him, Verily I say unto thee, that thou to-day, even this night, before the rooster crow twice, shalt deny me thrice.

Luke 22:34
34 And he said, I tell thee, Peter, the rooster shall not crow this day, until thou shalt thrice deny that thou knowest me.

That would mean that from the night or early morning when he was arrested, (in the midst of the feast), there would have been three days and three nights more spent in the heart of the earth, (the underground pit-dungeon below the High Priest's official residence). The correctly understood Torah calendar and the time prophecies in Daniel the Prophet bear this out, but of course, that would take far too much explanation for this thread.

Modern Judaism does not observe the Pesach in the same exact way as it is originally commanded in Exodus 12, for they say that the commandment not to go forth out of the house until morning was only for that special first occasion in Mitzraim. But what about the Master and his talmidim? Would they have left the house the first night before it was morning? It could have been essentially a twenty-four hour Seder full of teaching: it does not appear to me that one can tell for sure either way from the Gospel accounts.

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