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The end of the Gospel of Mark

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Chief117

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Hello everyone.

I have been doing a word study lately on "baptism," and it came up in a discussion on one of the verses the supposed warning that the end of Mark may not belong in the Bible.

My NIV translation makes a note saying, "The earliest manuscripts and some other ancient witnesses do not have Mark 16:9-20."

I just wondered if anyone knew some background on these verses, and could present the arguments for and against the end of this gospel. We were just curious.
 

PaladinValer

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The earliest copies of the Gospel according to St. Mark that contain the ending do not have those verses. They didn't crop up until I believe the very end of the 2nd century ce at the earliest possible, though it is more likely it was added in the early fourth (third?) of the 3rd century ce.
 
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Some of the earliest reliable greek Manuscripts DO end the Gospel of Mark at verse 8, yet some later ones have several different endings, and some Bibles, including the NIV, NLT and KJV add one of the more "noteworthy" or "worthwhile" endings of Manuscripts dated from IIRC, the 2nd century A.D.


People have th same dispute over 1 John 5:7, where some quite late manuscripts add the words "in heaven - the father, the word and the Holy Spirit, and htese three are one"

Although, this verse comes from far later manuscripts of 1 John compared to the Mark endings, which are dated at quite a bit earlier.
 
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tqpix

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S Walch said:
People have th same dispute over 1 John 5:7, where some quite late manuscripts add the words "in heaven - the father, the word and the Holy Spirit, and htese three are one"

Although, this verse comes from far later manuscripts of 1 John compared to the Mark endings, which are dated at quite a bit earlier.
I didn't know that. Thank you for the information.
 
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