In the course of an offline discussion with a Christian who believes the Lord's Supper is purely symbolic, he made the following argument:
When Jesus and his disciples ate the Last Supper, they were celebrating the Passover. After all, they were all Jews, and they had celebrated Passover with the Seder meal all their lives the bitter herbs dipped in salt water represent this, the unleavened bread represents that, etc. Everything about it is symbolic, and its all designed to remind the Jews of what God did for them when He brought them out of Egyptian bondage.
At the end of the ritual meal, which they all knew very well, Jesus said, in effect, Wait! Were not done, and the disciples all wondered, What is this? What is He doing? And then Jesus added the breaking of bread and the sharing of the cup and said, This is My body, this is My blood. Do this in remembrance of Me.
Seen in that light, what Jesus did at the end of that Seder meal is clearly symbolic, and His words are not to be taken literally.
How would you respond to this argument?
When Jesus and his disciples ate the Last Supper, they were celebrating the Passover. After all, they were all Jews, and they had celebrated Passover with the Seder meal all their lives the bitter herbs dipped in salt water represent this, the unleavened bread represents that, etc. Everything about it is symbolic, and its all designed to remind the Jews of what God did for them when He brought them out of Egyptian bondage.
At the end of the ritual meal, which they all knew very well, Jesus said, in effect, Wait! Were not done, and the disciples all wondered, What is this? What is He doing? And then Jesus added the breaking of bread and the sharing of the cup and said, This is My body, this is My blood. Do this in remembrance of Me.
Seen in that light, what Jesus did at the end of that Seder meal is clearly symbolic, and His words are not to be taken literally.
How would you respond to this argument?