Vance said:
Ah, I see, you want a statement from the ancients that says "I don't read that as literal, I read that as figurative". Now, this is actually very unscientific for a scientist.
Sorry Vance, that is the sorriest statement I have seen you make. Asking for direct evidence of something is 'unscientific'? Get real. I would accept a totally figurative interpretation from lots and lots of ancients as evidence as well. They don't have to say the words. But you keep ignoring the fact that you are saying something about the ancients for which there is hardly the slightest bit of evidence IF one actually goes and reads the ancients.
Evidence is what makes both history and science work. For you to act as if the statements of a few of your favorite profs are sufficient to prove the case is, frankly, weak.
We agree on 99% of things, but on this, we don't. You wouldn't accept this kind of reasoning from a YEC so why do you accept it for yourself?
Very often you will not have direct evidence of something, and the conclusion has to be inferred from the evidence. We see this all the time from YEC's in regards to evolution, since the evidence is often not direct, but logical inferences from the evidence we see. And, we rightly turn to experts in each field (like yourself for geology) to provide insights as to the proper inferences that can be drawn.
Fine, present the evidence upon which you inferred things. My suspicion is that you personally haven't read that evidence are are thus just believing what you were taught without having thought about it. If that wasn't the case, I suspect you would have laid the data out for me to see. So far we haven't seen anything from the ancients supporting your view--inferred or otherwise. As that old lady used to say in the Wendy's ad, Where's the beef?
The evidence that the ancient Hebrews would not have viewed their texts as literal history is that other cultures did not view it that way. The evidence that they did not view it that way is that they had conflicting accounts, followed by a similarly conflicting account in their own text. Now, is your problem with the existence of the conflicting accounts (for which I can gather the exact examples) or in the usefulness of that evidence in determining what the ancient Hebrews thought?
That isn't evidence that they all thought what they had was figurative. My reading of the ancients is that all cultures thought their story was true and the others false. That is certainly different than having everyone think of their own story as figurative. Are you aware that most primitive tribes think they are human and all others are not? A case in point, the Inuit.
'In 1959 I collected mosses at Point Barrow (then considered the
northern- most place on the North American Continent, later the
most northerly point was found to be in Canada) which for many
centuries was used by the Eskimos (who now prefer to be called
"Inuit", which in their language means 'The People") as a place to
prepare and store seal, bear, walrus and fish meat." Robert R. Brooks, And Dieter Johannes, Phytoarchaeology, (Portland, Oregon: Dioscorides Press, 1990), p. 110
The greeks considered themselves as the true humans and all others were barbarians. The European Pope had to address the issue of whether or not the Native Americans were really descendants of Adam. This view that we are the people and all others are not people is a widespread view in humanity. I am familiar with mainland Chinese culture and I can guarantee you many a Chinese mother would cry her eyes out if her daughter married a European.
If that is all you got, it is mighty inconclusive, and, I might add, mighty speculative. How exactly did you get into the minds of the ancients to see their views if you can't cite any writings supporting that view?
As for your two quotes, the first does not make any statement at all about whether that creation story is to be read as literal history, and the second seems to be saying what Augustine later proposed, that all things were created together, but they did not all show up at the same time, while still providing meaning to the "days". Bt then, we are starting to see the writing of histories and attempts to make them accurate. That is why we can have some viewing it both ways. Augustine, using Philo, for example to NOT read it as strict literal narrative.
I am doing what you above said you wanted--I am inferring from their statements that they acted as if the accounts were real. I cited the Bereshith as commenting that the newly formed Adam and Eve looked like 20 year olds--Why would someone who believed it was figurative say that?
You didn't read the second quotation very carefully. They didn't say all things were created simultaneously. Maimonides and Rambon thought that God put a force into the earth which came forth at an appropriate time. Hint: pay attention to Maimonides talking about the seeds. They were trying to explain the genesis account historically, not treat it as figurative. And the Talmud--here is another piece of evidence that they took it historically:
"Adam was created with two bodies, one of which was cut away from him and formed Eve." Charles F. Horne, The Sacred Books and Early Literature of the East, Vol 4, Medieval Hebrew: The Midrash, The Kabbalah, transl. By W. W. Westcott et al, (New York: Parke, Austin, and Lipscomb, INC, 1917), p. 47
Really, though, we are not going to get a clear statement about literalness from the actual first writers and readers (1000 years earlier than your quotes), so we will have to draw inferences from the evidence.
For someone who says he studied ancient literature, you should know that the Talmuds are 1st century thoughts put into final form in the 5th century. Maimonides cited the Talmud when he cited the 'sages'. That is what he was referring to. So part of that statement IS 1000 years yearlier than what you assume.
The fact that WE read it is narrative history with our modern minds is of little evidence at all, since we are so far removed. We have to determine how ancient people thought and how they would have likely felt about such writings.
I agree that we must determine what they beleived. But you can't do it by avoiding actually studying their literature and you can't get there by only citing 20th century profs. Lay out the data. The lack of it forthcoming from you shows me that you don't have it and have just accepted what you were taught. It is ok to do that, except that when challenged, it makes it really hard to defend the point.
If you can't cite the ancient texts, even those upon which you INFER your conclusion, then this discussion can't go much further. It tells me you haven't actually got the data at hand (and I would be very interested in seeing the data) but to just hear you say that so and so said it, isn't very interesting or convincing. Neither is the one evidentiary thing you did try to say--that they thought it was figurative because each tribe had their own story.
My goal is not to make you an enemy so I will cease now. If you ever come up with data to support your assertion, please post it. I would be very interested in it, even if it is the passages you use to infer your position. ONe doesn't need and I was not asking for a statement "I believe this is figurative". But some data from the ancient world would be very nice.
You can have the last word. I am through with this discussion.