- Apr 9, 2002
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Okay, so, I'm a little unclear on this, but how does the notion of objective sin interact with absolution? In particular, imagine that I do something which is objectively sinful, but not known to me to be sinful when I do it, and there is no subjective sin. I go to confession, where I presumably do not confess this thing, because I know of no sin, and I am absolved.
After that, I find out about the objectively sinful nature of the action, so...
1. Does this now create subjective sin in my earlier choice?
2. Am I already absolved of this thing, too?
3. Was I absolved of it before I even knew it was wrong?
4. Should I confess it now anyway?
It seems to me that there are some cases where new information could change whether or not something was sinful retroactively. (e.g., if you get an annullment, you never had a marriage, so you obviously didn't have a divorce.)
After that, I find out about the objectively sinful nature of the action, so...
1. Does this now create subjective sin in my earlier choice?
2. Am I already absolved of this thing, too?
3. Was I absolved of it before I even knew it was wrong?
4. Should I confess it now anyway?
It seems to me that there are some cases where new information could change whether or not something was sinful retroactively. (e.g., if you get an annullment, you never had a marriage, so you obviously didn't have a divorce.)