razzelflabben said:
I don't recall saying that a theory does become law
It was in post 247 where you said:
If our observations directly observed the toe, then the toe
would no longer be theory, but law.
but I am not going to take the time right now to go back and check, what I do remember saying is that if the theory is not a theory, then it should be a law. Here's a lay explaination that is pretty easy to understand
http://wilstar.com/theories.htm
Apparently you did not read the article you linked to. It says there are similarities and differences between scientific law and scientific theory. It does not say that a theory becomes a law.
Rather it distinguishes them as here:
The biggest difference between a law and a theory is that a theory is much more complex and dynamic. A law governs a single action, whereas a theory explains a whole series of related phenomena.
This is why a theory may include one or more laws as part of the theory. It can tie different laws together as part of a single theory which explains them both. A law is simple enough to be part of a theory, but a theory is a larger, more complex explanation than a law.
If the theory of evolution is fact, then it would not need to be revised, and therefore should be considered law.
It is not the
theory of evolution that is a fact. It is the
process of evolution that is a fact. We can observe evolution happening, so we know it is a fact by direct observation. The theory explains the facts and observations by setting them in context.
Theories are not facts, they are explanations of facts and predictions of more facts.
Laws are not facts either. They are descriptions of classes of facts which can be summarized as what always happens under conditions X, Y & Z.
You very seriously misunderstand science if you think a theory would not need to be revised. The best of theories is always open to revision if facts appear which it cannot explain. As the article you referenced says: a theory is
complex and
dynamic (bolding added). Something that is dynamic moves and changes.
In other words, if the toe is evolution only, then it should be a law based on the simplisity of the theory. If on the other hand, more is involved in the theory than simply evolution, then it would remain a theory based on the complexity of the theory. So when the claim is made that the theory of evolution is evolution, then my question to you is why isn't it law then?
The theory of evolution is about evolution, it is not the process of evolution itself. And the basic theory is quite simple. But it has lots of sub-theories and observations and laws as well whose relationships with each other are quite complex. After all, evolution relates all the many fields of biology together. And some fields of biology (such as molecular biology) are very active and coming up with new information daily.
So we have three things:
1. the fact of evolution (=observation of the process of evolution)
2. some laws about evolution (=descriptions of some parts of the process)
3. the theory of evolution (=an explanatory model of how evolution happens, which both explains the observations and laws and predicts new observations.)
Fact, law and theory are three different and well-defined concepts in science. They should not be confused with one another. None becomes one of the others. Each has its own place and function.
Let me ask you a question. Can we approach religion scientifically? The answer without waiting for you is yes, I watched a segment of a program on TV just this am that was looking at prayer from a scientific method. Does that make religion scientific? My answer to that question is no. Just as my answer to history being scientific is no and btw, I recently asked a historian I know if history was scientific, I thought he would explode from laughter when I told him there were those here on the forum claiming that it was. Approaching something scientifically doesn't make it scientific, it makes our approach to it scientific.
I can agree that neither religion nor history is science. But is the scientific study of religion or history science? That is the key question. Musical developments of the 20th century (e.g. jazz, rock, disco, rap, hip-hop, etc.) are not science either. But one could approach the subject scientifically, showing when and where each originated, what audience they appealed to, how they broke from their origins into the mainstream, what sort of revenue they generated year to year, etc.
Would such a study be music or science?
A study of the authenticity of the letter would be empirical knowledge, the donation is not evidenced in empirical observations now is it.
Sure why not, but I would not form a theory as to what the money was used for and then go around demanding people accept that theory as fact. What the money was used for is speculation only and is best left for additional evidence and/or individual assumptions.
My question did not include any reference to what the money was used for. Only to whether or not the congregation made a donation.
I dont understand your first sentence.
I asked if the
letter was empirical
evidence.
You reply that
a study of the authenticity of the letter would be empirical
knowledge.
So you have made two significant changes to what I asked.
Can you give me an answer to the question as I asked it please?
Perhaps you could also explain why a study would be empirical and the letter itself not be (if that is what you are implying.)
If history is not science, then any theory that bases itself in our origins is non scientific by nature that our origins are non sciences.
How do you come to this conclusion? (See analogy with music/science above.)
razzelflabben said:
HUH???? I asked you based on claims you made why a theory (note theory assumes maturity already) must be evidenced in order to be considered a scientific theory.
But you were asking why a proposal with testable predictions, but no evidence, could not be a scientific theory. A proposal/hypothesis with no evidence is not a mature theory. So you were not asking about a mature theory. You were asking why an untested hypothesis could not be considered a scientific theory. Now, I hope, you know the answer.
Look it up then come back and ask me. I asked, why must a theory be evidenced in order to be classified as a scientific theory.
(I have to cut my time on the forum for a while since I have to get ready for a show, so I will let you look it up since you love to do that anyway.)I have not changed the question!
(bolding added)
It appears you are incapable of reading what you yourself write.
Here is the original question from post #72
So then, if it [toc] makes testable predictions, what seperates it from scientific theory?
(bolding added)
You repeat the question in post 102
According to the definition given, a theory is scientific if it makes testable predictions. I pointed you to a site that offers testable predictions made by the toc. The question then is not whether or not the predictions are testable but whether or not the toc would move into the realm of science if it proves itself as making testable predictions.
(bolding added)
And as recently as post 251, you confirmed again what the original question was.
Actually, my original position was to ask you a question that would further define what you were saying. That being that if the defintion for theory is that it makes testable predictions and if the toc does make testable predictions, what then keeps it from being a scientific theory.
(bolding added)
In all of these cases you are not referring to a theory which has supporting evidence derived from testing its predictions. You are referring only to having testable predictions, not to testing them and analyzing the results. At that stage, what you have is not a theory, it is a hypothesis.
So when you now want to pretend that you were asking about a mature theory with supporting evidence, that
is changing the question. Existing evidence was not assumed in the original question as stated by you three times---only testable predictions.
gluadys said:
Yes, that is where we started off. And I hope the answer is clear now, that the predictions have to be actually tested and found correct before we have a scientific theory. Prior to the predictions being tested we do not have a theory yet, just a hypothesis. So what keeps the toc from being a scientific theory is that its predictions are either not testable (e.g that God created) or false (e.g. that humans did not evolve).
That would be a different question and a different discussion now wouldn't it?
Not at all. It is this question (why the toc is not scientific) and this discussion.
I would think that a hypothesis whose predictions cannot be evidenced, would be discarded or revised rather than remain a scientific hypotheis until it could be tested and evidenced.
Correct. The hypothesis only becomes (and remains) a theory as long as its predictions test out as true.