NJA said:
... because he allows God to free him from his own inability, as Romans says:-
8:26: Likewise the Spirit also helpeth our infirmities: for *we* know not what we should pray for as we ought: but the Spirit itself maketh intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered.
i.e. *He* has the words!
If the definition of utter is to give audible, esp. verbal, expression to; speak or pronounce; to emit with voice; then how are you then saying *He* has the words!.
Hence, cannot be uttered
doesnt seem reasonable to attach to speaking in tongues. In reading the verse in context of the full chapter (or even just surrounding verses), I find myself hard-pressed to find your interpretation.
Aside from that
how are you drawing a line from the Holy Spirit interceding, to the act of speaking in tongues?
NJA said:
At Pentecost the people overheard others praying, that's why they were all left in doubt and confusion ! (Acts 2v12). i.e, tongues isn't much cop for preaching !
That's why the apostles stopped speaking to God in tongues and Peter stood up & began to speak to the crowd... then they understood. . . .do you ?
Dont hold back; tell me how you really feel
NIV6When they heard this sound, a crowd came together in bewilderment, because each one heard them speaking in his own language.
KJV6 Now when this was noised abroad, the multitude came together, and were confounded, because that every man heard them speak in his own language.
EVERYBODY within the crowd understood the message in their own language. Their bewilderment was in the miracle.
NIV 12Amazed and perplexed, they asked one another, "What does this mean?"
KVJ12 And they were all amazed, and were in doubt, saying one to another, What meaneth this?
At which time Peter spoke. First explaining the miracle, then preaching the good news.