- Apr 30, 2004
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That is sad. Really it is.lambslove said:What evidence do you have? It's not from Catholic sources, is it, because they have a vested interest in Paul using the books, so their sources may not be the most reliable.
Who do you think translated the books into Greek? Jews. If they were not part of their everyday reading why did they add them? The Jews are still waiting for the messiah.Yes, by the Greeks, not the Jews. I dare you to find any Jewish Bible with the apochrypha included. None do.
Go ask any Rabbi if Jesus was the messiah. You will be hard pressed to find any that will say he was. The ones you know, they actually admit Jesus was the messiah and yet they damn themselves to hell because they do not want to follow Him?That's not true. You must not know many Jewish people. I know many, and they ALL say they believe Jesus really was the messiah but they refuse to become Christians because of the usual objections and because they would never be able to give up the traditions of Judaism to pick up the traditions of Christianity.
Jews do not accept Jesus as the messiah because:
1) Jesus did not fulfill the messianic prophecies.
2) Jesus did not embody the personal qualifications of the Messiah.
3) Biblical verses "referring" to Jesus are mistranslations.
4) Jewish belief is based on national revelation.
5) Christianity contradicts Jewish theology
6) Jews and Gentiles
7) Bringing the Messiah
Anyway again:
Why don't Jews accept Jesus as the Messiah?
Answer In brief:
1. No Jew accepts Jesus as the Messiah. When someone makes that faith commitment, they become Christian. It is not possible for someone to be both Christian and Jewish.
2. Jews reject Jesus as the Messiah because he didn't fulfill Jewish expectations of the Messiah.
3. The Hebrew Bible (called the Old Testament by the non-Jewish world) is not proof for anything in the New Testament regarding a Messiah.
I would love to know what evidence they have of such a claim as people have been arguing about this for ages.But those apochryphal books were not part of the Jewish Bibles back then, according to the Rabbis I know.
I would love to see sources on this. Really.They were added by the Greeks, not the Jews, because the Greeks felt that more needed to be added to the story to make it interesting. They weren't satisfied with an Esther story that didn't mention God's direct intervention, so they augmented the story and added it to the apochrypha. Why would Jews have to Esther stories in the same Bible? It wouldn't make sense. The greeks hated an incomplete story, and they viewed the Jewish texts as stories, not as scritpure. They were a collection of morality plays to the Greeks, not a sacred book about the one true God. Adding a few more morality plays rounded the texts out nicely to them. Read the Book of Judith and tell me if you really think it is of God.
We have no record of this account that there was an established canon. None. In fact that is what Jamnia was supposed to be about to establish a set canon.But back to your question, no, I don't believe that Jesus had to mention every book of the Bible in order for it to be a valid part of the canon. The Jewish canon was established by the time of Christ's birth.
What stake is that? 75% of the worlds Christians are either Catholic or Orthodox, and yet they are wrong and we are right when it comes to this issue? If I am wrong show me proof otherwise, as I can take itNo writings have been added to it since then. Jews themselves call the apochrypha and all other additions "the spurious books." They don't believe that anything is missing from or needs to be added to the basic Bible. If they hold that belief now, what evidence do you have that they ever believed any other way. Again, without using Catholic sources, since they have a great stake in claiming the apochrypha ARE part of the canon.
That is why I brought this subject up so we can all learn from each other and decide for ourselves.
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