I appreciate that. However, the misrepresentation of a Bible verse like that should not be let pass without setting the record straight. Anyone could have done it. I merely read and replied first. No discussion, just pointing out what it actually says. Now we move on.
As for my commentary on SS, it's cleancut. We all agree that the Bible is divine revelation, don't we? Then all that we on the SS side are saying is, it's of unimpeachable authority. Also, God must have meant it to be sufficient for us or else he'd have added more to it. How can either of those propositions be denied?
To second-guess the sufficiency of the Word of God, and claim that we have to have this or that human's ideas bolted onto the Word of God does not make sense to me. If there were a reason, I'd hear it and listern carefully. But, I was a Roman Catholic, you know, and it was because there is nothing more sufficient or accurate than the Word of God that I rejected Tradition, the commentary and ideas of ordinary men.
The Church doesn't even adhere to its own definition of what supposedly makes Tradition a second stream of divine revelation, so it clearly (IMO) is false, and scripture is all we have to count on. Besides, the Bible itself says that it contains all that we need to know, so what argument can there be for adding anything to it?
I hope that's something along the lines of what you were asking me to contribute.
Albion, without getting into anything else but the question asked by the OP, who among those who hold to sola scripture have the right interpretation of the WORD?
I don't understand why this is such a hard question to answer directly and clearly.
Is it because NO ONE among those who hold to sola scriptura has the right interpretation of the WORD?
I am left wondering if this is what all these responses mean after several pages with no clear, direct answer to the OP . . .
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