Sola Scriptura circa 700 AD

Barney2.0

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I already pointed out he did not see Esther as inspired Scriptures. And there is debate whether or not he viewed Lamentations as that which he called Baruch.

Which in the case of St Athanasius as a doctor of the Church his OT canon is closest to the Protestant OT canon and if we include St Jerome the OT canon of the Protestants matches. Which provides the evidence that I have shown and many others is that Luther did not make up the deuterocanon controversy. The Protestant OT canon has historic Church support.
On the contrary Luther did make the Deuterocanonical controversy up as it was the first time it was removed from the Bible in history or a widespread schism occured because of it. Saint Athanasius seperated the Canonical books from the Deuterocanonical books, likewise he didn’t view the Deuterocanonical books as I inspired apocrypha either in the final paragraph of Letter 39 is this closing:

But for greater exactness I add this also, writing of necessity; that there are other books besides these not indeed included in the Canon, but appointed by the Fathers to be read by those who newly join us, and who wish for instruction in the word of godliness. The Wisdom of Solomon, and the Wisdom of Sirach, and Esther, and Judith, and Tobit, and that which is called the Teaching of the Apostles [i.e. Didache], and the Shepherd. But the former, my brethren, are included in the Canon, the latter being [merely] read; nor is there in any place a mention of apocryphal writings. But they are an invention of heretics, who write them when they choose, bestowing upon them their approbation, and assigning to them a date, that so, using them as ancient writings, they may find occasion to lead astray the simple.

From this we understand that Athanasius places the books not as Canonical, yet not as Apocrypha either, he classified them as Deuterocanonical books (or secondary books) just as the Church does today so this not only supports our position, but confirms it, while being a slap in the face to Protestantism.
 
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PeaceByJesus

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On the contrary Luther did make the Deuterocanonical controversy up as it was the first time it was removed from the Bible in history or a widespread schism occured because of it..
Again, just where do you get these fallacies? Luther did not remove all the Deuteros from his translation of the Bible, but as with others before him, he did not consider them to be Scripture, and thus signified it by placing them separately in his translation.
or a widespread schism occured because of it.
Wrong also! No widespread schism occurred because of Luther's opinion on the Deuteros, which he specifically stated was his own private opinion, others could make their own judgment, and Reformers did not wholly follow Luther on this (he also rejected 3 NT books).

And rather than his opinion opinion on the Deuteros being a actual cause of widespread schism, this opinion was not even one of the 41 + charges brought against him by Rome in in the Bull of excommunication by Pope Leo X in Exsurge Domine, "Condemning the Errors of Martin Luther," unless Purgatory not being able to be proved from canonical Sacred Scripture refers to Luther's rejection of 2 Mac. 12, but which does not teach Purgatory, as even RC scholars state.
Saint Athanasius seperated the Canonical books from the Deuterocanonical books, likewise he didn’t view the Deuterocanonical books as I inspired apocrypha either in the final paragraph of Letter 39 is this closing:

But for greater exactness I add this also, writing of necessity; that there are other books besides these not indeed included in the Canon, but appointed by the Fathers to be read by those who newly join us, and who wish for instruction in the word of godliness. The Wisdom of Solomon, and the Wisdom of Sirach, and Esther, and Judith, and Tobit, and that which is called the Teaching of the Apostles [i.e. Didache], and the Shepherd. But the former, my brethren, are included in the Canon, the latter being [merely] read; nor is there in any place a mention of apocryphal writings. But they are an invention of heretics, who write them when they choose, bestowing upon them their approbation, and assigning to them a date, that so, using them as ancient writings, they may find occasion to lead astray the simple.

From this we understand that Athanasius places the books not as Canonical, yet not as Apocrypha either, he classified them as Deuterocanonical books (or secondary books) just as the Church does today so this not only supports our position, but confirms it, while being a slap in the face to Protestantism
Wrong again. You should know that apocryphal has a broad meaning, and if you followed the apocryphal writings link iin the above quote on the New Advent site you could see this. The apocryphal writings Athanasius refers to are not what we refer to as the Apocrypha, meaning the non-inspired Deuterocanonical books.
And despite the semantics, you admit Athanasius "didn’t view the Deuterocanonical books as I inspired," and he says in Letter 39 he "set before you the books included in the Canon, and handed down, and accredited as Divine...There are, then, of the Old Testament, twenty-two books in number," and which, with the exception of Baruch, excludes the Deuteros.

And he also disagreed with Trent by excluding them from being read in the church. And which as a RC he could, since there was no indisputable canon until after the death of Luther.

But true to form, I expect you will just dismiss the manifest evidence as you must, and thus (after extensive showing of your errors) I am done with you here.
 
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redleghunter

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On the contrary Luther did make the Deuterocanonical controversy up as it was the first time it was removed from the Bible in history or a widespread schism occured because of it. Saint Athanasius seperated the Canonical books from the Deuterocanonical books, likewise he didn’t view the Deuterocanonical books as I inspired apocrypha either in the final paragraph of Letter 39 is this closing:

But for greater exactness I add this also, writing of necessity; that there are other books besides these not indeed included in the Canon, but appointed by the Fathers to be read by those who newly join us, and who wish for instruction in the word of godliness. The Wisdom of Solomon, and the Wisdom of Sirach, and Esther, and Judith, and Tobit, and that which is called the Teaching of the Apostles [i.e. Didache], and the Shepherd. But the former, my brethren, are included in the Canon, the latter being [merely] read; nor is there in any place a mention of apocryphal writings. But they are an invention of heretics, who write them when they choose, bestowing upon them their approbation, and assigning to them a date, that so, using them as ancient writings, they may find occasion to lead astray the simple.

From this we understand that Athanasius places the books not as Canonical, yet not as Apocrypha either, he classified them as Deuterocanonical books (or secondary books) just as the Church does today so this not only supports our position, but confirms it, while being a slap in the face to Protestantism.
If that is not separation of what is inspired from what is just good godly reading then I don’t know how you can even convince yourself. He made the distinction.

It is the difference in modern contrast between the Bible and the works of CS Lewis.

And as has been pointed out several times this controversy of what is Protocanon vs dueterocanon continued through the Council of Trent with even Roman Catholic scholars and Cardinals making the same plea as Luther.
 
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Barney2.0

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Again, just where do you get these fallacies? Luther did not remove all the Deuteros from his translation of the Bible, but as with others before him, he did not consider them to be Scripture, and thus signified it by placing them separately in his translation.

Wrong also! No widespread schism occurred because of Luther's opinion on the Deuteros, which he specifically stated was his own private opinion, others could make their own judgment, and Reformers did not wholly follow Luther on this (he also rejected 3 NT books).

And rather than his opinion opinion on the Deuteros being a actual cause of widespread schism, this opinion was not even one of the 41 + charges brought against him by Rome in in the Bull of excommunication by Pope Leo X in Exsurge Domine, "Condemning the Errors of Martin Luther," unless Purgatory not being able to be proved from canonical Sacred Scripture refers to Luther's rejection of 2 Mac. 12, but which does not teach Purgatory, as even RC scholars state.
Wrong again. You should know that apocryphal has a broad meaning, and if you followed the apocryphal writings link iin the above quote on the New Advent site you could see this. The apocryphal writings Athanasius refers to are not what we refer to as the Apocrypha, meaning the non-inspired Deuterocanonical books.
And despite the semantics, you admit Athanasius "didn’t view the Deuterocanonical books as I inspired," and he says in Letter 39 he "set before you the books included in the Canon, and handed down, and accredited as Divine...There are, then, of the Old Testament, twenty-two books in number," and which, with the exception of Baruch, excludes the Deuteros.

And he also disagreed with Trent by excluding them from being read in the church. And which as a RC he could, since there was no indisputable canon until after the death of Luther.

But true to form, I expect you will just dismiss the manifest evidence as you must, and thus (after extensive showing of your errors) I am done with you here.
Luther seperated them by placing them as Deuterocanonical books he didn’t separate them as non scripture, where did you get that idea? It wasn’t exactly Luther’s private oppinion to reject the Deuterocanonical books he made it quite clear that this was the stance he also wanted the Church to adopt. Yes Apocrypha does have a broad meaning it was historically used to refer to heretical Gnostic writings or “Gospels”or sometimes early Christian writings that were of doubtful authorship. 2 Maccabees does teach praying for the dead, although it doesn’t teach the Latin doctrine of Purgatory it does teach purification after death. I never said Athanasius didn’t view them as inspired I said that he viewed them as second class books to the Canonical books and the Protocanon which is fine, he didn’t deny their divine inspiration. Martin Luther being a Roman Catholic has to accept all binding Eumenical councils and synods, his rejection of the books at Trent without valid lines of reasoning was heresy and was condemned as heresy by the Roman Catholic Church. I already demonstrated that the council of Carthage settled the issue of the Biblical Canon long before Trent. Protestants are virtually the only body of Churches or sects (as Protestantism isn’t a untied Church) which have removed seven books from the Bible and rejecting many Church synods and councils in the process. Even until now you guys are still the odd bunch in Christianity, as every other Church whether Eastern Orthodox, Roman Catholic, Oriental Orthodox, or Church of the East, all accept these books as inspired which Protestantism denies. If it is your opinion that I’m in error however then that is your opinion, it’s up to people viewing these forums to decide whose in error.
 
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Barney2.0

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If that is not separation of what is inspired from what is just good godly reading then I don’t know how you can even convince yourself. He made the distinction.

It is the difference in modern contrast between the Bible and the works of CS Lewis.

And as has been pointed out several times this controversy of what is Protocanon vs dueterocanon continued through the Council of Trent with even Roman Catholic scholars and Cardinals making the same plea as Luther.
Saint Athanasius made a distinction between the Deuterocanonical books and the Protocanon or Canonical books. It’s not a question of what is inspired and what isn’t, but a question of status, and should the Deuterocanonical books be apart of the Protocanon and hold the same status as them, obviously the answer was no as answered by Athanasius and the historical Church. The Biblical Canon has already earlier been listed as including the Deuterocanonical books earlier at the council of Carthage and Hippo.
 
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redleghunter

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Saint Athanasius made a distinction between the Deuterocanonical books and the Protocanon or Canonical books. It’s not a question of what is inspired and what isn’t, but a question of status, and should the Deuterocanonical books be apart of the Protocanon and hold the same status as them, obviously the answer was no as answered by Athanasius and the historical Church. The Biblical Canon has already earlier been listed as including the Deuterocanonical books earlier at the council of Carthage and Hippo.
The status is one of inspiration. A prophet cannot be found in the dueterocanon books.
 
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PeaceByJesus

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It is only because your falsehoods are so provocative (cf. Proverbs 18:6) that I respond at all to your refuted reiterations once again. First off,
Luther seperated them by placing them as Deuterocanonical books he didn’t separate them as non scripture, where did you get that idea?
Why not try Luther himself?

Translations of the non-Hebrew OT texts began to appear under Luther’s auspices in 1529, a few translated by him, but others by colleagues. In 1534, a complete Bible was published. The pattern follows the listing given in the 1523 Pentateuch, but the non-Hebrew texts now bear the heading: “Apocrypha: that is, books which are not held equal to Holy Scripture, but which are useful and good to read.” These books are numbered and listed: Judith, Wisdom, Tobit, Sirach, Baruch, Maccabees, sections of Esther, and sections of Daniel. There then follow, not listed and numbered, Bel and the Dragon, the Song of the Three Young Men, and the Prayer of Manasseh. 19 With some minor variations, this pattern continues in other Bibles published in Wittenberg during Luther’s lifetime...

About Judith he says: “If one could prove from established and reliable histories that the events in Judith really happened, it would be a noble and fine book, and should properly be in the Bible. Yet it hardly squares with the historical accounts of the Holy Scriptures..” MARTIN LUTHER ON CANON AND APOCRYPHA


Can you see the distinction, and which Luther made with certain other books as well. Yet Luther considered Judith a beautiful book worth reading, and while rejecting such, he could cite such for support, as he did with Sirach and Tobit. But such use does not equate to being classed as wholly inspired Scripture.

And note that I am not defending all of Luther's judgments, but that he had license as to his judgments on what was Scripture or not, as did other RC scholars until Trent's definition on April 8th, 1546 after the death of Luther. (February 8,1546)

It wasn’t exactly Luther’s private oppinion to reject the Deuterocanonical books he made it quite clear that this was the stance he also wanted the Church to adopt.
Which is just another of your bare assertions that you use as arguments, and to the contrary as Luthers says about this book of the Revelation of John which he also rejected as Scripture: "I leave everyone free to hold his own ideas, and would bind no man to my opinion or judgment."

While Luther could scornfully cite Catholic acceptance in his contrary judgments, if he was arguing that all should confirm to all his judgments on what was Scripture then he did a poor job of convincing fellow Reformers, for as as your own Dave Armstrong states (Luther's Radical Views on the Biblical Canon) hardly any of whom fully held to his canon.
2 Maccabees does teach praying for the dead, although it doesn’t teach the Latin doctrine of Purgatory it does teach purification after death.
At least you admit 2 Maccabees 12:38-46 actually does not support RC Purgatory, and in fact it is contrary to RC doctrine, and thus it can hardly be a positive support for Purgatory, even if no less than even if no less than Eck thought it was, nor its exclusion can helpful to Reformers.

For as likely explained already, in RC (not EO) theology, Purgatory is only for the elect, those who are certain to be saved, but need to make further expiation for venial, non-mortal sin and attain the level of purification needed to enter RC Heaven. However, those in 2 Mac. 12 died because they were card-carrying (amulet) idolators, which is a moral sin, which excludes one from Purgatory. And the offering that was made for them was in order that they may be in the resurrection (of the just), which those in Purgatory are said to already be assured of.

As for support of purification after death, 2 Maccabees 12:38-46 does not teach that these souls were experiencing postmortem purification, only that prayers and an offering be made for them that they my be reconciled to God, that they might be delivered from sin.

And actually, evangelical theology recognizes purification after death, that of the judgment seat of Christ,, which is the only suffering after this life that the NT clearly speaks of after this life, that of the loss of rewards (and the Lord's revelation and disapproval), which one is saved despite the loss of. But which does not occur until the Lord's return and believers resurrection. (1Cor. 3:8ff; 4:5; 2Tim. 4:1,8; Rev.11:18; Mt. 25:31-46; 1Pt. 1:7; 5:4) Versus Purgatory, which suffering commences at death in order to enable souls to enter Heaven.

But nowhere does 2 Maccabees 12:38-46 teach suffering in purgatory in order to atone for sin and become pure enough to enter Heaven,while wherever Scripture clearly speak of the next conscious reality for believers then it is with the Lord, (Lk. 23:43 [cf. 2Cor. 12:4; Rv. 2:7]; Phil 1:23; 2Cor. 5:8 [“we”]; 1Cor. 15:51ff'; 1Thess. 4:17)
I never said Athanasius didn’t view them as inspired. I said that he viewed them as second class books to the Canonical books and the Protocanon which is fine, he didn’t deny their divine inspiration.
You said "he didn’t view the Deuterocanonical books as I inspired apocrypha either," which to me in my fatigue meant he did not view them as inspired. Sorry for my misunderstanding. However, the fact remains that as said, he said he "set before you the books included in the Canon, and handed down, and accredited as Divine...There are, then, of the Old Testament, twenty-two books in number," and which, with the exception of Baruch, excludes the Deuteros as Divine.
Martin Luther being a Roman Catholic has to accept all binding Eumenical councils and synods, his rejection of the books at Trent without valid lines of reasoning was heresy and was condemned as heresy by the Roman Catholic Church.
What?! How many times does it have to be shown you that there simply was no Ecumenical councils and synods that defined the canon until Trent, and which did so after the death of Luther!

The Catholic Encyclopedia, Canon of the New Testament, (1917), states (emphasis mine throughout the proceeding),

► “The Canon of the New Testament, like that of the Old, is the result of a development, of a process at once stimulated by disputes with doubters, both within and without the Church, and retarded by certain obscurities and natural hesitations, and which did not reach its final term until the dogmatic definition of the Tridentine Council. (CATHOLIC ENCYCLOPEDIA: Canon of the New Testament)

► "The Tridentine decrees from which the above list is extracted was the first infallible and effectually promulgated pronouncement on the Canon, addressed to the Church Universal.(Catholic Encyclopedia, http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/03267a.htm;

► “Catholic hold that the proximate criterion of the biblical canon is the infallible decision of the Church.” “The Council of Trent definitively settled the matter of the OT Canon. That this had not been done previously is apparent from the uncertainty that persisted up to the time of Trent." (New Catholic Encyclopedia, Catholic University of America , 2003, Vol. 3, pp. 20,26.

► The Catholic Study Bible, Oxford University Press, 1990, p. RG27: "The final definitive list of biblical books (including the seven additional Old Testament books) was only drawn up at the council of Trent in 1546. “Most Christians had followed St. Augustine and included the 'Apocrypha' in the canon, but St. Jerome, who excluded them, had always had his defenders." (Joseph Lienhard, The Bible, The Church, And Authority [Collegeville, Minnesota: The Liturgical Press, 1995], p. 59)

► "...an official, definitive list of inspired writings did not exist in the Catholic Church until the Council of Trent (Yves Congar, French Dominican cardinal and theologian, in Tradition and Traditions" [New York: Macmillan, 1966], p. 38).

► As Catholic Church historian and recognized authority on Trent (2400 page history, and author of over 700 books, etc.), Hubert Jedin (1900-1980) observes, it also put a full stop to the 1000-year-old development of the biblical canon (History of the Council of Trent [London, 1961] 91, quoted by Raymond Edward Brown, American Roman Catholic priest and Biblical scholar, in The New Jerome biblical commentary, p. 1168)

►The question of the “deutero-canonical” books will not be settled before the sixteenth century. As late as the second half of the thirteenth, St Bonaventure used as canonical the third book of Esdras and the prayer of Manasses, whereas St Albert the Great and St Thomas doubted their canonical value. (George H. Tavard, Holy Writ or Holy Church: The Crisis of the Protestant Reformation (London: Burns & Oates, 1959), pp. 16-17)

►It may be a surprise to some to know that the “canon,” or official list of books of the Bible, was not explicitly defined by the Church until the 16th century though there was a clear listing as early as the fourth century. (Leonard Foley, O.F.M., Believing in Jesus: A Popular Overview of the Catholic Faith, rev. ed. (St. Anthony Messenger Press, 1985, p. 21)

► "For the first fifteen centuries of Christianity, no Christian Church put forth a definitive list of biblical books. Most Christians had followed St. Augustine and included the 'Apocrypha' in the canon, but St. Jerome, who excluded them, had always had his defenders." (Joseph Lienhard, S.J., A.B., classics, Fordham University, “The Bible, The Church, And Authority;” [Collegeville, Minnesota: The Liturgical Press, 1995], p. 59)

► "in the fifth century a more or less final consensus [on the New Testament canon] was reached and shared by East and West. It is worth noting that no ecumenical council in the ancient church ever ruled for the church as a whole on the question of the contents of the canon." (Harry Gamble, in Lee McDonald and James Sanders, edd., The Canon Debate [Peabody, Massachusetts: Hendrickson Publishers, 2002], p. 291)

► Neither Catholics nor the Orthodox recognize Rome or Carthage or Hippo as Ecumenical in their list.” CATHOLIC LIBRARY: The 21 Ecumenical Councils Ecumenical Councils - OrthodoxWiki.

► “The Council of Florence (1442) contains a complete list of the books received by the Church as inspired, but omits, perhaps advisedly, the terms canon and canonical. The Council of Florence therefore taught the inspiration of all the Scriptures, but did not formally pass on their canonicity.” (CATHOLIC ENCYCLOPEDIA: Canon of the Old Testament)

► “The seventh Ecumenical Council officially accepted the Trullan Canons as part of the sixth Ecumenical Council. The importance of this is underscored by canon II of Trullo which officially authorized the decrees of Carthage, thereby elevating them to a place of ecumenical authority. However, the Council also sanctioned were the canons of Athanasius and Amphilochius that had to do with the canon and both of these fathers rejected the major books of the Apocrypha. In addition, the Council sanctioned the Apostolical canons which, in canon eighty-five, gave a list of canonical books which included 3 Maccabees, a book never accepted as canonical in the West.101 Furthermore, the Apostolical canons were condemned and rejected as apocryphal in the decrees of Popes Gelasius and Hormisdas.102 Thus indicating that the approval given was not specific but general.” (http://www.christiantruth.com/articles/Apocrypha3.html)

I already demonstrated that the council of Carthage settled the issue of the Biblical Canon long before Trent
.
NO, you did not, as instead it has been abundantly church "fathers" and the Scriptures ]documented [/url]that in addition to the above, as said, scholarly disagreements over the canonicity (proper) of certain books as wholly inspired Scripture continued down through the centuries and right into Trent!
Protestants are virtually the only body of Churches or sects (as Protestantism isn’t a untied Church) which have removed seven books from the Bible and rejecting many Church synods and councils in the process.
And? Considering that distinctive Catholic doctrines are not manifest in the only wholly inspired substantive authoritative record of what the NT church believed (including how they understood the OT and gospels), which is Scripture, especially Acts thru Revelation, then her other judgments can hardly be said to warrant de facto credibility.

Moreover, the church actually began in dissent from those who sat in the seat of Moses over Israel, (Mt. 23:2) who were the historical instruments and stewards of Scripture, "because that unto them were committed the oracles of God," (Rm. 3:2) to whom pertaineth" the adoption, and the glory, and the covenants, and the giving of the law, and the service of God, and the promises" (Rm. 9:4) of Divine guidance, presence and perpetuation as they believed, (Gn. 12:2,3; 17:4,7,8; Ex. 19:5; Lv. 10:11; Dt. 4:31; 17:8-13; Ps, 11:4,9; Is. 41:10, Ps. 89:33,34; Jer. 7:23)

And instead they followed an itinerant Preacher whom the magisterium rejected, and whom the Messiah reproved them Scripture as being supreme, (Mk. 7:2-16) and established His Truth claims upon scriptural substantiation in word and in power, as did the early church as it began upon this basis. (Mt. 22:23-45; Lk. 24:27,44; Jn. 5:36,39; Acts 2:14-35; 4:33; 5:12; 15:6-21;17:2,11; 18:28; 28:23; Rm. 15:19; 2Cor. 12:12, etc.)
Even until now you guys are still the odd bunch in Christianity, as every other Church whether Eastern Orthodox, Roman Catholic, Oriental Orthodox, or Church of the East, all accept these books as inspired which Protestantism denies.
What kind of argument is that? If the issue is Roman authority over the canon, then the EOs - who reject Trent as ecumenical - and others who also do not confirm to the canon Trent, however little, must all be considered to be dissenters along with us, it being only a matter of degrees. Yet btwn the two of us we hold to the canon of Scripture of the greatest antiquity, which is affirmed in Catholicism: “the protocanonical books of the Old Testament correspond with those of the Bible of the Hebrews, and the Old Testament as received by Protestants.” “...the Hebrew Bible, which became the Old Testament of Protestantism.” (The Catholic Encyclopedia>Canon of the Old Testament; htttp://www.newadvent.org/cathen/03267a.htm) The Protestant canon of the Old Testament is the same as the Palestinian canon. (The Catholic Almanac, 1960, p. 217)
If it is your opinion that I’m in error however then that is your opinion, it’s up to people viewing these forums to decide whose in error.
Indeed, and after spending literally more hours typing with my stiff arthritic fingers i will leave it to the judgment of readers, who can see you being refuted time and time again, only to come back like a man with his hand and feet cut off in battle but who comes back for more claiming his shields protected him.
 
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Barney2.0

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Luther in his original translation of the Bible didn’t exclude the Deuterocanonical books as uninspired Apocrypha, he did include them as inspired however of a secondary status. It’s however good that you admit Luther rejected books here and there based in his own personal beliefs and opinions, likewise I find it strange that you and most Protestantism believe his judgement on the Deuterocanonical books to be in the right considering he rejected books here and there on the whims of what confirmed to his personal beliefs on the faith, that’s what would typically be called an illogical position. It’s quite strange that Luther says everyone can have their own opinions on scripture then says that 2 Maccabees is an uninspired forgery in the debate of Leipzig.

My knowledge on the Latin doctrine of Purgatory is quite limited so I can’t speak much about it to be sure, 2 Maccabees does support a purification stage or prayers for dead sinners, but I can’t say if it’s supports purgatory or not. The Catholic Church doesn’t really require its believers to conform to the Latin doctrine of purgatory anymore according to its present day Catechism one must only believe in a place of purification for those still unfit to enter heaven and prayers for those that are dead. The concept of suffering in a hellish place called purgatory is still up for debate even among Roman Catholics.

I meant to say that Athanasius never viewed the Deuterocanonical books as uninspired Apocrypha, more could be viewed here:

http://matt1618.freeyellow.com/deut.html#St. Athanasius [295-373 A.D.]

Saint Jerome viewed the Deuterocanonical books as inferior to the Protocanon at best, Saint Jerome never denied their status as scripture because he frequently quoted from them:

http://matt1618.freeyellow.com/deut.html#St. Jerome, [347-419/420 A.D]

I never made the claim that there was any Eumenical councils deciding on canon however pretty much every synod or council on the topic of the Biblical Canon came to the conclusion that the Deuterocanonical books should be included in the Bible. The reason for the lack of a Eumenical council of the subject is because there was no need to, there was no widespread confusion with the matter, as Eumenical councils are only called if and only if there’s a massive crisis going on in the Church which must be resolved as soon as possible, furthermore Eumenical councils don’t invent new things rather they confirm that which has already existed. Again how do minor historical scholarly disputes on canonicity of certain books effect the official stance of the Church which viewed the decisions of certain councils of Carthage and Hippo as binding regardless of them being fallible or infallible. Both the Eastern Orthodox and Roman Catholics view these councils as binding and authoritive regardless of them being fallible councils.

The Palestinian Canon wasn’t settled until Jamnia or perhaps much later after Christendom was well established. Roman Catholics don't actually regard the Orthodox Canon as wrong, as they do allow Eastern Catholics to possess different canons corresponding to their Orthodox counterparts. Furthermore Trent was meant to address Western Christianity, it’s canon of scripture, and it’s liturgy, it had nothing to do with Eastern Christianity. Protestantism is the only Christian group to exclude the Deuterocanonical books and appeal to a Jewish council aimed directly at responding to Christianity. Every body of Churches includes the Deuterocanonical books as inspired, every Church believes in sacred tradition, every Church believes in salvation as a life working task which must be worked on, the only ones to deny the following are Protestantism. Even the Catholic Church seems to view every Church as having Apostolic origins except Protestantism, can’t say I really blame them.

I prefer not to claim victory here and merely let others read understand and decide themselves.
 
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Major1

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If you hold to the doctrine of sola scriptura, meaning scripture alone as the source of all doctrines, when did it begin?

In 700 AD all Christians used the longer canon, meaning that the bible had in it what protestants call the apocrypha. In 700 AD a Christian would have prayed for the dead and given alms for the dead based on II Maccabees 12:42-44.

When did sola scriptura end that practice?

Actually I believe that if you do the work you will find that Sola Scriptura was taught by the early church fathers.
The Apostolic Fathers viewed oral tradition between 30 - 100 AD as a duplicate of scripture. They also stated that scripture replaced oral tradition. In other words, there was nothing in oral tradition that was lacking in scripture.

All the early creeds were based directly upon scripture on a clause by clause basis. This is a crushing blow to Roman Catholic and Orthodox defenders, because if ever there was a place that "oral traditions" not found in scripture should have arisen, creeds were the perfect place. Yet we see these creeds were based on scripture. It has also not dawned upon these tradition defenders that creeds are not oral traditions, but written traditions.

When the Apostolic Fathers spoke of traditions that were not found in scripture, they were minor local customs that were practiced, like drinking milk and honey after baptism and not taking a bath the week after baptism. Of course neither the Roman Catholic and Orthodox churches do these things today, proving our point, that these were optional customs. Most important, is that these are the only kinds of "oral traditions" that were not found in the Bible that the Fathers spoke about.
Sola Scriptura: Apostolic Fathers used scripture as the primary defense against false doctrine.
 
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Ignatius the Kiwi

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Actually I believe that if you do the work you will find that Sola Scriptura was taught by the early church fathers.
The Apostolic Fathers viewed oral tradition between 30 - 100 AD as a duplicate of scripture. They also stated that scripture replaced oral tradition. In other words, there was nothing in oral tradition that was lacking in scripture.

All the early creeds were based directly upon scripture on a clause by clause basis. This is a crushing blow to Roman Catholic and Orthodox defenders, because if ever there was a place that "oral traditions" not found in scripture should have arisen, creeds were the perfect place. Yet we see these creeds were based on scripture. It has also not dawned upon these tradition defenders that creeds are not oral traditions, but written traditions.

When the Apostolic Fathers spoke of traditions that were not found in scripture, they were minor local customs that were practiced, like drinking milk and honey after baptism and not taking a bath the week after baptism. Of course neither the Roman Catholic and Orthodox churches do these things today, proving our point, that these were optional customs. Most important, is that these are the only kinds of "oral traditions" that were not found in the Bible that the Fathers spoke about.
Sola Scriptura: Apostolic Fathers used scripture as the primary defense against false doctrine.

This claim seems misleading.

No one would contest that the creeds were based on scripture but what I would contest is that they were based on scripture alone. It's not of immediate clarity upon a first reading of the sacred scripture that Christ, the Father and the Holy Spirit are homoousious and proof of that would be the lack of such descriptions or theological definitions until the council of Nicaea itself.

The ideas expressed in the ecumenical creeds were not self evident to the first readers of scripture or those in the second century (though we see the grains of thought leading to a Trinitarian definition). Any reading of the second century Fathers will show they lacked the vocabulary of Origen, Athanasius, Basil the Great and Gregory Nazainzus. It wasn't until those authors, having to deal with the claims of the Arians that such definitions needed to be made and the Arians were appealing to scripture as much as they were. So how is this a blow to the Orthodox or even Catholic understanding of the Creed? It shows the symphony of Scripture and the Church and how BOTH were essential to ending the theological crisis and defending the faith. Without the Church you would not have had the Trinitarian definition as explicit as you might like it.

I would also suggest we not only take the Creeds from the councils but also the canons or rules enforced by them for the Church. Now the canons in many places exceed Scripture in that there are decrees that are not mentioned in scripture (such as not kneeling on Sunday) and the authority of certain rules extends to actually being able to defrock certain clergy who violate those rules. The bible lays out no rules for jurisdictions and conduct between Bishops and presbyters and yet the Council of Nicaea in canons 4-7 felt it was able to do this while appealing to 'ancient custom.' Just how Sola Scriptura were the Fathers in such appeals?

I'll also suggest that tradition was not merely the repetition of what is found in scripture. Our first descriptions of liturgical life and certain ecclesiastical issues only come from the tradition and are not talked about in the New Testament, be that Apostolic Succession (1 Clement and Iranaeus), how we worship (Justin martyr), Easter liturgy (Melito of Sardis) and others I'm surely forgetting to mention. Later authors like Basil explicitly refute your understanding, that we have certain traditions from from writing and others handed down in mystery.

"Of the dogmas and messages preserved in the Church, some we possess from written teaching and others we receive from the tradition of the apostles, handed on to us in mystery. In respect to piety, both are of the same force. No one will contradict any of these, no one, at any rate, who is even moderately versed in matters ecclesiastical. Indeed, were we to try to reject unwritten customs as having no great authority, we would unwittingly injure the gospel in its vitals; or rather, we would reduce [Christian] message to a mere term" (The Holy Spirit 27:66 [A.D. 375]).


Can you produce an author who says that all of the tradition of the Church was only that which scripture mentions?
 
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Major1

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This claim seems misleading.

No one would contest that the creeds were based on scripture but what I would contest is that they were based on scripture alone. It's not of immediate clarity upon a first reading of the sacred scripture that Christ, the Father and the Holy Spirit are homoousious and proof of that would be the lack of such descriptions or theological definitions until the council of Nicaea itself.

The ideas expressed in the ecumenical creeds were not self evident to the first readers of scripture or those in the second century (though we see the grains of thought leading to a Trinitarian definition). Any reading of the second century Fathers will show they lacked the vocabulary of Origen, Athanasius, Basil the Great and Gregory Nazainzus. It wasn't until those authors, having to deal with the claims of the Arians that such definitions needed to be made and the Arians were appealing to scripture as much as they were. So how is this a blow to the Orthodox or even Catholic understanding of the Creed? It shows the symphony of Scripture and the Church and how BOTH were essential to ending the theological crisis and defending the faith. Without the Church you would not have had the Trinitarian definition as explicit as you might like it.

I would also suggest we not only take the Creeds from the councils but also the canons or rules enforced by them for the Church. Now the canons in many places exceed Scripture in that there are decrees that are not mentioned in scripture (such as not kneeling on Sunday) and the authority of certain rules extends to actually being able to defrock certain clergy who violate those rules. The bible lays out no rules for jurisdictions and conduct between Bishops and presbyters and yet the Council of Nicaea in canons 4-7 felt it was able to do this while appealing to 'ancient custom.' Just how Sola Scriptura were the Fathers in such appeals?

I'll also suggest that tradition was not merely the repetition of what is found in scripture. Our first descriptions of liturgical life and certain ecclesiastical issues only come from the tradition and are not talked about in the New Testament, be that Apostolic Succession (1 Clement and Iranaeus), how we worship (Justin martyr), Easter liturgy (Melito of Sardis) and others I'm surely forgetting to mention. Later authors like Basil explicitly refute your understanding, that we have certain traditions from from writing and others handed down in mystery.

"Of the dogmas and messages preserved in the Church, some we possess from written teaching and others we receive from the tradition of the apostles, handed on to us in mystery. In respect to piety, both are of the same force. No one will contradict any of these, no one, at any rate, who is even moderately versed in matters ecclesiastical. Indeed, were we to try to reject unwritten customs as having no great authority, we would unwittingly injure the gospel in its vitals; or rather, we would reduce [Christian] message to a mere term" (The Holy Spirit 27:66 [A.D. 375]).


Can you produce an author who says that all of the tradition of the Church was only that which scripture mentions?

I think maybe you misunderstood what I said which was...………..
"In other words, there was nothing in oral tradition that was lacking in scripture."

In order to know whether not a tradition is true, there must be a standard against which it is judged. Since Scripture is the only infallible standard, then Scripture has to be what is used to judge tradition.

IF instead, Traditions are based on what a man said, then it becomes the doctrine of sinners for sinners.

Matthew 15:3.........….
"He answered them, “And why do you break the commandment of God for the sake of your tradition?"

The key to avoiding “pagan Christianity” is comparing every belief and practice with Scripture and removing anything that contradicts what the Bible prescribes for the church.

But if that's the case, then tradition is subordinate to Scripture. Furthermore, if tradition is not judged by Scripture, then there is no real way to find out if it's true or not.
 
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Ignatius the Kiwi

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I think maybe you misunderstood what I said which was...………..
"In other words, there was nothing in oral tradition that was lacking in scripture."

In order to know whether not a tradition is true, there must be a standard against which it is judged. Since Scripture is the only infallible standard, then Scripture has to be what is used to judge tradition. But if that's the case, then tradition is subordinate to Scripture. Furthermore, if tradition is not judged by Scripture, then there is no real way to find out if it's true or not.

I'll respond more fully later but for now I want to ask regarding my quote from Basil. Was he wrong to equate Scripture and Tradition the way he did? That is he doesn't make one necessary and the other helpful, rather he makes both necessary to one's faith. This is the same Basil who offered a deep reading of the Bible in his work on the Holy Spirit, explaining why those who denied the Spirit (Pneumotomachians I think he calls them) were wrong based on Saint Paul?
 
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Maybe not for you or for Lutherans, but for most evangelicals it is...
I agree, I see it all the time hence why I made the remark that I did. But your problem isn't between Prima over Sola Scriptura as you originally stated but that modern Evangelicals often use Nuda Scriptura to define their doctrines and confuse it with Sola Scriptura in name.
 
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I agree, I see it all the time hence why I made the remark that I did. But your problem isn't between Prima over Sola Scriptura as you originally stated but that modern Evangelicals often use Nuda Scriptura to define their doctrines and confuse it with Sola Scriptura in name.

I have heard many definitions of Sola Scriptura, from the extreme ones ("nuda" scriptura) to some more liberal ones. There are some definitions that I would agree with, but still, "sola" means "only" and I am more for "prima" than "only".

On the other hand, I think that some mild definitions of sola scriptura practically equal prima sctriptura. So, sometimes its just about definitions.
 
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I'll respond more fully later but for now I want to ask regarding my quote from Basil. Was he wrong to equate Scripture and Tradition the way he did? That is he doesn't make one necessary and the other helpful, rather he makes both necessary to one's faith. This is the same Basil who offered a deep reading of the Bible in his work on the Holy Spirit, explaining why those who denied the Spirit (Pneumotomachians I think he calls them) were wrong based on Saint Paul?

IMO...……..YES!

At stake is the very Gospel itself and it is therefore a matter of eternal life or death.

Getting the Gospel right is of such importance that the Apostle Paul would write in Galatians 1:9.........….
“As we have already said, so now I say again: If anybody is preaching to you a gospel other than what you accepted, let him be eternally condemned!”

Honestly, and logically, If you want to know what 1st century beliefs or Apostles teaching---reading about them in the original Bible is more accurate than a guy writing about them.

When we accept the thesis of men instead of the teachings of the Scriptures we wind up with things such as...……..

"Selling of Indulgences."
"Transubstaciation".
"Immaculate Conception of Mary (Inefafbilis Deus, 1854)"
and the "Assumption of Mary (Munificentissimus Deus, 1950).

Those teachings are now Roman Catholic dogmas, which go against all scriptural teaching.

By upholding Sola Scriptura, we can evaluate any new “improvement” in liturgy and teaching, under the lens of Scripture, and stay faithful to the Word of God.
 
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