- Apr 30, 2004
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Yeah I know it is a Baptist forum, I am afterall a Baptist, and am posting my questions to Baptists. Whether Baptists know it or not alot of the roots to what we profess to believe come from the likes of Luther, Calvin, Wesley, Tyndale, Wycliff, etc... I used Luther because he was the first one to move the books to the back of the book, so to speak. Later on we carry that same tradition a step further by removing them.bleechers said:This is a Baptist forum. Historically, Baptists and Anabaptists have little to do with Luther.
Well for the me the line was crossed when it was said to me that Mary was sinless. To me there was only one sinless being on the planet and that was Jesus the Christ. As far as the indulgencies, praying to saints, and the lot, I agree these are not Baptist practice. What I am asking is why were they removed? Some are obvious, and some others clearly were done and excepted for quite some time, so what did we see that they didn't? It has been hinted that the LXX was written by Hellenistic Jews. This LXX was used on more than one occasion by Paul. Did Paul ever condemn the LXX because it had these books in them? Would it suprise you to know that the apocrypaha is alluded to on more than one occasion?The line that is crossed in terms of the veneration of Mary is when she elevated to the "dispenser of all graces" and to "Co-Remptrix" and "Co-Mediatrix" with Christ. Also, the doctrine of Indulgences (the denial of which carries an anathema in Trent and Vatican II) is wholly incompatable with the gospel as taught by the majority of Baptists.
Acts 17:11 speaks of the OT. The NT was not even attempted I believe at this point. Galatians 1:6-9 could have been oral teaching not necessarily written, as we don't know exactly when the Gospels were written out. Mark 7 I have no idea what you meant by that one. Please explainAs per traditions, the question is this: are church traditions judged by the scripture or are they superior to scripture (cp Acts 17:11; Gal 1:6-9; Mark 7).
I have never understood the whole without sin thing myself. Any attempts to explain it have lacked greatly in my opinion. The penalty of sin is death. So if Mary died, she must have sinned. People will say that Jesus never sinned and yet he died. That is very true but the sins of the world were placed on him...so he died.The Immacualate Conception is the doctrine of Mary's conception. This led to the dilemma, if she was without sin why would she die?... Which led to the codification of the doctrine of the Assumption of Mary in 1951 (?) or roundabout.
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