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I would think you just found one VERY satisfying answer? I'd be surprised if others haven't already plumbed the questions you have. In fact, I'd be surprised if I haven't; but G-d knows, and delights in showing us what we didn't know ...
The question I'd ask then is if God didn't like slavery from the beginning, why didn't he tell them that He would allow them to have slaves, but that it was still wrong? Instead, you see the law where God tells them not to beat their slaves to the point that they can't get up after more than a few days, and then stating that the slave is the property of the owner.
"20 Anyone who beats their male or female slave with a rod must be punished if the slave dies as a direct result, 21 but they are not to be punished if the slave recovers after a day or two, since the slave is their property." Exodus 21:20-21
I just can't wrap my mind around that being okay, or God being okay with that. It really seems to contradict Leviticus 19:18:
"You shall not take vengeance or bear a grudge against your kinsfolk. Love your neighbor as yourself: I am the LORD."
How can you beat a slave, yet love him or her as yourself?
I guess you could say God is just being patient with people, but he also seems pretty impatient and intolerant towards people sinning sometimes, often wiping out entire nations for being bad, so that seems a bit incongruous. And if he was being patient for people to change, why didn't he tell them they needed to change and that slavery was something they really shouldn't be doing, even though he permitted it?
Hi razeontherock,
I'm not sure if this is how you took my post, but I posted that verse to say that that verse makes no sense why God would tolerate and regulate slavery, so it was more of a "Grr! This doesn't make any sense! *bangs head against wall" than a "I found a satisfying answer" kind of thing.
Or if you thought I concluded that "the only satisfying answer is that there aren't answers and it's a big mystery, and I'm going to leave it all up to God", it wasn't that either. It was more, I think I'm seriously considering leaving Christianity because I can't find any answers to these questions I feel are crucially important.
I wish I'd found a very satisfying answer. I really do.
"20 “Anyone who beats their male or female slave with a rod must be punished if the slave dies as a direct result, 21 but they are not to be punished if the slave recovers after a day or two, since the slave is their property." Exodus 21:20-21
I just can't wrap my mind around that being okay, or God being okay with that. It really seems to contradict Leviticus 19:18:
"You shall not take vengeance or bear a grudge against your kinsfolk. Love your neighbor as yourself: I am the LORD."
How can you beat a slave, yet love him or her as yourself?
I guess you could say God is just being patient with people, but he also seems pretty impatient and intolerant towards people sinning sometimes, often wiping out entire nations for being bad, so that seems a bit incongruous. And if he was being patient for people to change, why didn't he tell them they needed to change and that slavery was something they really shouldn't be doing, even though he permitted it?
Hi razeontherock,
I'm not sure if this is how you took my post, but I posted that verse to say that that verse makes no sense why God would tolerate and regulate slavery, so it was more of a "Grr! This doesn't make any sense! *bangs head against wall" than a "I found a satisfying answer" kind of thing.
Or if you thought I concluded that "the only satisfying answer is that there aren't answers and it's a big mystery, and I'm going to leave it all up to God", it wasn't that either. It was more, I think I'm seriously considering leaving Christianity because I can't find any answers to these questions I feel are crucially important.
I wish I'd found a very satisfying answer. I really do.
I know this is going to be a waste of time, but you need to understand that slavery in the Bible was profoundly different than it is in our time.
First of all, the Bible ALWAYS condemned that kind of slavery we commonly think of today when we think about slavery or see it portrayed in movies such as "Roots" or "Amistad". We see this condemnation in both Exodus 21:16 and 1 Timothy 1:8-10.
What you have to realize is that slavery in the Bible was primarily indenture based. That is, that a person agreed to act as a servent for a given number or years or until a debt was paid off. In this case, the slave entered into slavery willingly.
What's more, in many cases, the slaves were considered to be one of the family and were given the authority to carry out business and legal transactions o the part of the master, as well as often inheriting a part of the master's estate upon his death.
Don't confuse this with the African slavery you see on TV. Two completely different things.
No, this has nothing to do with people entering slavery willingly, or not. Does Scripture address Hagar's becoming servant of Abraham?
Even if not, we certainly have enough records of Abraham's hospitality to know that she was treated far better than a present-day McDonald's employee, for example.
When Scripture refers to such things, it has no bearing on our modern day concept of "slavery." Hermeneutics are in order here!
did she? did the scripture says that?
Um, got English? Try again?
Why is slavery mentioned in the old testament with no attempt to deter people from it? I think everyone here would agree that slavery is immoral, it seems strange that a book meant as a moral guide would bring up such a subject without emphasising the immorality of it.
Is there a logical explanation for this? It's just that I feel uncomfortable in the knowlege that these books are taken as moral guidelines.
First of all one needs to define slavery. Slavery consists of many different things / situations throughtout the Bible.
Are you in debt, or do you have a mortgage? If you do or are, Biblically you are endentured to your lender for the term of the debt.
Is the nation you hold citizenship in indebted? If it is then you as a citizen of that nation are endentured to the lender nation(s), unless you or someone else has paid off your share, as a citizen, of that national debt.
Are you following God's ways? If not He is not your master, but rather you are enslaved to the god of adversary, Satan. what is the penalty for knowing God's ways but not following them? Biblically speaking its national slavery or death, as evidenced by Israel's and Judah's penalties for doing so..
Then of course there's slavery to corrupt teachings, which can be avoided if one follow's God's commandment in 1 thes 5v21.
Then there's enslavement to one's own opinions (vain imaginations), where one refuses to believe what one reads or is taught of the truth, favoring instead to believe as one's self wills.
Is slavery a valued instructional tool? It should be. But when men choose from generation to generation to enslave themselves, prefering it as an acceptable condition in which to live, it is extremely difficult to pry them away from its ' comforts '; as they become institutionalized to it; it providing all their needs.
The only case in which slavery is not an effect is that in which one has entered into it willingly, thoroughly understanding the implications and requirements of one doing so.
Want to erase involuntary slavery? First one must seek to free oneself of its causes.
i'm asking you. where did it say that? don't ask if i got english when you're the one who bring it up.
here the bible allow purchasing slaves:
Lev 25:44 Both thy bondmen, and thy bondmaids, which thou shalt have, shall be of the heathen that are round about you; of them shall ye buy bondmen and bondmaids.
Lev 25:45 Moreover of the children of the strangers that do sojourn among you, of them shall ye buy, and of their families that are with you, which they begat in your land: and they shall be your possession.
Lev 25:46 And ye shall take them as an inheritance for your children after you, to inherit them for a possession; they shall be your bondmen for ever: but over your brethren the children of Israel, ye shall not rule one over another with rigour.
care to explain that?
how do you account for this buying slaves foreigner stuff:
Lev 25:44 Both thy bondmen, and thy bondmaids, which thou shalt have, shall be of the heathen that are round about you; of them shall ye buy bondmen and bondmaids.
Lev 25:45 Moreover of the children of the strangers that do sojourn among you, of them shall ye buy, and of their families that are with you, which they begat in your land: and they shall be your possession.
Lev 25:46 And ye shall take them as an inheritance for your children after you, to inherit them for a possession; they shall be your bondmen for ever: but over your brethren the children of Israel, ye shall not rule one over another with rigour.
but among the brethren of israel they may not buy. why?
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