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Scriptural Interpretation

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Inan3

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My friend , the scripture really must be an integrated whole to be the one word of God, thus one must use it all to understand any aspect of it ... that is why I quote scriptures from various places, ... I cannot quote the whole , you must read that for yourself to understand it ,yearning to God that he give you understanding [instead of ,as commonly happenms, listening to what sinners teach and write...

Thus I must use scripture, not my own words, and I am only trying to present what it says, i have no agenda whatever exceoptthe desire to see if others undertstand what it says the same way that I do...

Thus I ask you to read it more slowly and understand each part before continuing, then it will eb clear what the scripture is saying [it matters not what i am saying if it i different from what scripture is saying!]

ow , your question is about the Jews, but the jews are the House of Judah, the House of Israel mostly never took up Judaism, never became Jews ... so the Jews are only part of the whole still-divided nation of Israel

now read the new covenant [Heb 8:8-12] and you will see what it says ,that only all of Israel [both Houses] receive grace

I am sorry that I have to exlain myself but your language at times seems to insinuate that others (including myself) might not have the good sense to apply ourselves as you have done. To that end I share with you a little about myself. I am aware of the necessity of interpreting scripture with scripture....ALL of the scripture. And I assure you that my study of scripture is very intense and it is my practise to seek the Lord and find HIS meaning of it.

I'm not sure WHO you are referring to as "sinners that teach and write" but if you knew me you would know that I NEVER just take the word or teaching of ANYONE on blind faith. Especially not someone that I have not proven over and over again. And even then, IF they say something I question they will have to show me the scriptures to prove it. I believe I am responsible to God to "Study to show myself approved unto Him (and Him only), rightly dividing the work of truth, becoming a workman that needeth not to be ashamed in the process." I look to the scriptures and I know that God reveals to me the answers that I seek concerning His word. I thank you for your suggestion that I do that but be assured I have been doing that very thing for a very long time. Certainly long before I came to CF-land. So you may discontinue any insinuations to that end. Also, I am not easily intimadated by those who throw around words and accusations

By all means I would WANT you to use scriptures to explain your understanding or belief of the scriptures but know this that I would EXPECT you (as myself) to be clear on what you are stating and not to just take those scriptures OUT OF CONTEXT to support what you are saying. For even Satan quoted scripture.

Now that we hopefully have that clear. I want you to know that I do not disagree with your statement "now read the new covenant [Heb 8:8-12] and you will see what it says ,that only all of Israel [both Houses] receive grace"... but I cannot understand WHY you brought this up in response to what I said in my post #376, which really had little bearing on what I was trying to say. Hence, the reason I thought you had your own agenda that you wanted to promote.

And I would like you to claify if you are you saying that there is only this ONE covenant, the covenant between the House of Israel and the House of Judah or do you see that there are others?
 
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