- What does the term mean?
- What is the correct usage? Examples?
Thanks in advance.
ETA: I'm serious. This isn't a leading question.
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I do not know what "Gods existence is ontological" is intended to mean.I have not come across the phrase before.OK. After rereading the above responses: it would seem that someone might say "God's existence is ontological" and mean "That existence is property of 'God'".
Maybe?
I believe I've also seen posts talking about temporal contingency versus ontological contingency. I know what tc is, but oc doesn't even begin to make sense. (Of course, I could be remembering the conversation wrong.)
I have found that some use the term as if it means something like intrinsic or necessary and, IIRC, circularly, as in "God's existence is ontological."
Is this a proper usage; am I missing something in what they are saying?
OK. After rereading the above responses: it would seem that someone might say "God's existence is ontological" and mean "That existence is property of 'God'".
Maybe?
Maybe "God's existence is ontological" refers to Anselm's ontological argument for the existence of God. i.e. "a perfect being, if we can conceive of it, must exist because to exist is more perfect than not to exist".
Simply put, ontology is the study of existence or being ("Do we exist?" "What is the nature of our existence?"). It's a nice word, but in practice it's hard to separate it from other fancy words like epistemology ("How do we know?").
An example of mixing the two together is DesCartes' cogito ergo sum.
[edit] Another ontological problem that philosophers like to noodle around with is substance vs. property. It is related to the question, "How do we define things?" I think of it as trying to separate the adjective from the noun. So, grass exists and it is green, i.e. green grass. But "green" doesn't exist as a "substance." I can't go to the store and buy a green. So, is green a "Form" - a non-substantial idea? And what is grass without green? If I remove all the descriptive words associated with grass, what do I have left? In other words, can I "know" the thing (called the "object" in philosophy) without it's properties? This starts to get at Kant's ding an sich (or the "thing in itself").
I am a scientist, not philosopher. So, I always wonder about the validity of many classical philosophical arguments. This may not related to the OP, but nevertheless, it might touch the fringe.
The example of green grass illustrates the philosophical thought without a scientific insight. And I guess it is a very common situation in many classical philosophical arguments.
Green is a property of a substance and is caused by special material in the substance. A grass without green is still a grass, may be a red, or a yellow grass. If you want to buy a green, I can simply pass you a lettuce. That IS green. If I want to argue with energy/material relationship, then I can also say that green IS a form of substance with a unique identity. So, the green grass argument may be a valid philosophical argument 300 years ago, but it should be modified or not used today.
This may not be a proper example. But my point is: if many classical philosophy arguments are analyzed first by modern scientific knowledge, then some of the dilemmas may have been solved. If so, how many real philosophical questions left?
Some ontological questions may also be modified along this thought.
I think I see what you are getting at.Onto equates to an accurate awareness of the the true nature of a subject.
The ontological equates to the meta-physical/meta-spacial/meta-temporal.
Ontology is the study of the above.
I think the reason I get confused is because people use grammar badly. Forgive me if I'm wrong but the above sentence probably ought to read "Reasoning is the sequencing of ontological ideas." THAT I can make sense of. The placement of the word ontological in the first version of the sentence makes it modify sequencing. I could make up a reason why sequencing might be ontological--maybe--but, it makes little sense on the surface,Example:
Reasoning is the ontological sequencing of ideas.
I'm sorry, but this is just gibberish to me. I know what an intellectual perception is, I think. I know what a chronological sequence is. On ontological sequencing, see above. But, what would be the necessity of reordering a series of perceptions by their ontology (nature)? And what would be the nature of existence of an intellectual perception that would be of any interest other than 'I had a perception.'Human reasoning ontologically sequences a chronological sequence of intellectual perceptions.
Utter gibberish.God's reasoning ontologically sequences eternally present intellectual conceptions.
I think I see what you are getting at.
However, the problem come in what is below:
I think the reason I get confused is because people use grammar badly. Forgive me if I'm wrong but the above sentence probably ought to read "Reasoning is the sequencing of ontological ideas." THAT I can make sense of. The placement of the word ontological in the first version of the sentence makes it modify sequencing. I could make up a reason why sequencing might be ontological--maybe--but, it makes little sense on the surface,
I'm sorry, but this is just gibberish to me. I know what an intellectual perception is, I think. I know what a chronological sequence is. On ontological sequencing, see above. But, what would be the necessity of reordering a series of perceptions by their ontology (nature)? And what would be the nature of existence of an intellectual perception that would be of any interest other than 'I had a perception.'
Utter gibberish.
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