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Schatz on "Rome has spoken, the matter is settled"

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InquisitorKind

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In his book Papal Primacy [The Liturgical Press, Collegeville, Minnesota, 1996]), Roman Catholic Klaus Schatz, S.J., commenting on the overall relationship between the North Africans and Rome during the era of the Pelagian controversy, sufficiently relates the context on the often mis-quoted phrase Roma locuta, causa finita:

In the case of North Africa it is interesting to note the attitude of a self-confident and organizationally intact Church toward Rome. The saying of Bishop Augustine of Hippo (396-430), Roma locuta, causa finita ("Rome has spoken, the matter is settled") was quoted repeatedly. However, the quotation is really a bold reshaping of the words of that Church Father taken quite out of context.

Concretely the issue was the teaching of Pelagius, an ascetic from Britain who lived in Rome. Pelagius took a stand against permissive and minimalist Christianity that shrank from the moral seriousness of Christian discipleship and used human incapacity and trust in grace alone to excuse personal sloth. He therefore emphasized an ethical Christianity of works and moral challenge for which grace was primarily an incentive to action; human beings remain capable of choosing between good and evil by their own power. This teaching was condemned by two North African councils in Carthage and Mileve in 416. But since Pelagius lived in Rome, and Rome was the center of the Pelagian movement, it seemed appropriate to inform Pope Innocent I of the decision. Ultimately, the struggle against Pelagianism could only be carried on with the cooperation of Rome. The Pope finally responded in 417, accepting the decisions of the two councils. Augustine then wrote: "In this matter, two councils have already sent letters to the apostolic see, and from thence rescripts have come back. the matter is settled (causa finita est); if only the heresy would cease!"

Both the context of this statement and its continuity with the rest of Augustine's thought permit no interpretation other than that Rome's verdict alone is not decisive; rather, it disposes of all doubt after all that has preceded it. This is because there remains no other ecclesiastical authority of any consequence to which the Pelagians can appeal, and in particular the very authority from which they could most readily have expected a favorable decision, namely Rome, has clearly ruled against them!

In general, Augustine attributes a relatively substantial weight of authority to the Roman church in questions of faith but does not consider that it has a superior teaching office. It has auctoritas, but not potestas over the Church in North Africa. The very councils mentioned above give a clear picture of the way the Africans, including Augustine, regarded Rome's teaching authority. They sent their records to Rome not to obtain formal confirmation, but because they acknowledged that the Roman church, with its tradition, had a greated auctoritas in matters of faith; therefore they desired to have a Roman decision united with their own. This is especially obvious in a letter from Augustine writing for five bishops; we are not, he said, pouring

our little trickle back into your ample fountain to increase it, but. . .we wish to be reassured by you that this trickle of ours, however scant, flows from the same fountainhead as your abundant stream, and we desire the consolation of your writings, drawn from our common share of the one grace.
Every word of this should be noted: The Roman church is not the source of the African Church, for both, in parallel streams, flow from the river of the same tradition, even though the river is fuller in the Roman church. Rome thus has a relatively greater and more weighty authority, and that is why the African Church seeks a verdict from Rome (pages 34-35).

Footnotes and references will be posted if anyone requests them.

~Matt
 
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A. believer

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Thanks for posting that, Matt. It might be helpful for those who've been led into thinking that the misquote from Augustine proves that he held to a modern day Roman Catholic ecclesiology. I've given Bastoune, who apparently owns and has read every Augustine work extant today, the opportunity to show us from the one work Augustine wrote specifically about ecclesiology where he articulates the Roman Catholic definition of unity. I'm looking forward to reading that.
 
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InquisitorKind

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A. believer said:
Thanks for posting that, Matt. It might be helpful for those who've been led into thinking that the misquote from Augustine proves that he held to a modern day Roman Catholic ecclesiology.
You're more than welcome, Ree. I stumbled across it after I started reading this book recently recommended by Jason Engwer over at NTRMin.org. I've seen parts of this quote before, but only at NTRMin, and it was only upon reading Schatz that I remembered its existence. I believe it's useful for Protestants who are often confronted with that quote to know the true context and meaning of it, especially when it's Roman Catholic scholars explaining it.

Schatz makes some interesting remarks on the whole nature of the papacy in his book. I recommened it to any Protestant who discusses the Papacy with Roman Catholics. You'll see very significant differences between what most RC apologists assert and what RC scholarship has to say on the same subject.

I've given Bastoune, who apparently owns and has read every Augustine work extant today, the opportunity to show us from the one work Augustine wrote specifically about ecclesiology where he articulates the Roman Catholic definition of unity. I'm looking forward to reading that.
Myself as well. I hope Bastoune does not decline from what should be an easy play if Augustine truly was Roman Catholic.

~Matt
 
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