Saving grace; a question.

JM

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Greetings my Presbyterian brothers and sisters!
I have a question for you.

From the Reform perspective, is there a difference between prevenient grace (as taught by Wesleyans) and saving grace?

Thanks.
Prevenient grace doesn't save it only makes one "savable." Arminius never taught that.
 
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Thatgirloncfforums

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Compatibilism?
The description in the Wikipedia article seems pretty OK. It’s just that from a Reformed perspective if God enables you to respond to the Gospel, you do. The good part of the definition is that it clarifies that God doesn’t force people to be saved or damned. He enables them to make responsible decisions. A lot of people don’t really understand the concept of compatibilism. However, as Clare73 says, when God saves us from the total depravity that Arminius agrees we have without God, we then actually do respond as saved people.
 
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Thatgirloncfforums

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Clare73

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Thank you.
I'd like to know more about Compatibilism.
I think it means reconciling
the free will of man and the sovereignty of God,
man's spiritual inability and man's responsibility for sin,
man's responsiblity for Adam's sin (Romans 5:18),
man's responsibility for God sovereignly hardening only some hearts (Romans 9:18-21).
 
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Thatgirloncfforums

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Why are we responsible for Adam's sin?
I think it means reconciling
the free will of man and the sovereignty of God,
man's spiritual inability and man's responsibility for sin,
man's responsiblity for Adam's sin (Romans 5:18),
man's responsibility for God sovereignly hardening only some hearts (Romans 9:18-21).
 
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Clare73

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Why are we responsible for Adam's sin?
It is accounted to those born of Adam, just as Christ's righteousness is accounted to those born of Christ's Holy Spirit (Romans 5:18-19).
 
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Thatgirloncfforums

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Why would God consign all men under sin, if he did not intend to save all? I mean, what would be the point. Just let them be.
It is accounted to those born of Adam, just as Christ's righteousness is accounted to those born of Christ's Holy Spirit (Romans 5:18-19).
 
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Clare73

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Why would God consign all men under sin, if he did not intend to save all? I mean, what would be the point. Just let them be.
Part of a much bigger plan to glorify his Son.
 
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Hazelelponi

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Thank you.
I'd like to know more about Compatibilism.

It simply means that God's predetermination and meticulous providence is "compatible" with voluntary choice. Our choices are not coerced ... i.e. we do not choose against what we want or desire, yet we never make choices contrary to God's sovereign decree. What God determines will always come to pass (Eph 1:11).

How can God be sovereign and man still be free?

^^ good explanation

After reading the above link, you can move onto this next article:

Confession of a Reformed Philosopher: Why I Am a Compatibilist about Determinism and Moral Responsibility - The Gospel Coalition
 
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Thatgirloncfforums

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It simply means that God's predetermination and meticulous providence is "compatible" with voluntary choice. Our choices are not coerced ... i.e. we do not choose against what we want or desire, yet we never make choices contrary to God's sovereign decree. What God determines will always come to pass (Eph 1:11).

How can God be sovereign and man still be free?

^^ good explanation

After reading the above link, you can move onto this next article:

Confession of a Reformed Philosopher: Why I Am a Compatibilist about Determinism and Moral Responsibility - The Gospel Coalition
Thank you. These are very informative. I'll finish reading tomorrow.
 
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Clare73

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Can you elaborate?
In a nutshell:

God has sovereignly chosen to glorify himself through the glorification of his Son, in the Son's redemption and preparation for himself of a bride, spotless and without blemish. . .who is his body in the two-in-one enfleshment of the marital union (Ephesians 5:31-32), whom he is within (Colossians 1:27), and who reigns with him in the heavenlies (Ephesians 1:20-23, Ephesians 2:6).
 
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