RND
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In what way does this text contradict the teaching of Scripture that justified persons sin?
In what way does this text contradict the teaching of Scripture that justified persons sin?
As far as I'm aware there are no contradictions in the Bible. If the Bible contradicts itself then it cannot be the infallible Word of God.
See Hebrews 6.
Note that the text you cited says none of the above. These are your words.
2Cr 5:17 Therefore if any man [be] in Christ, [he is] a new creature: old things are passed away; behold, all things are become new.
Eph 2:8 For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: [it is] the gift of God:
No. However they are subject to sin less and less and abhor sin more and more. In other words, an adulterer isn't prone to want to continue in adultery, a bank robber sees the light and stops robbing banks, a drug addict finally gains the victory over his demons, a theft stops stealing, liars start telling the truth, etc.We agree. Since the corruptible does not put on incorrruption until Christ's second coming, do you conclude that justified persons are sinless prior to Christ's second coming?
Being washed in the blood of the lamb.Is salvation contingent upon sinlessness or upon an adequate amount of sin removal?
1Jo 1:9 If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us [our] sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.
Just enough to put Christ on the cross. You're question is like asking how pregnant is too much?How much sin is too much sin?
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