Where is it stated that the Jubilee is a non-sowing year?
There was supposed to be enough given (by God) in the 6th year to last (3) years. The produce from the 6th year lasted for the yovel (7th) and also lasted into the 1st year so they could eat till the crops they planted in the 1st year started to produce.
The Yovel is a rest for the land, no sowing is allowed. See Leviticus 25:11
IF the yovel was not also the 1st year of the next cycle as well you would have to have provisions for (4) years (
6th, 7th shemitah, Yovel, 1st till produce).
Leviticus 25:21 says the produce is for only 3 years.
21 I will command my blessing on you in the sixth year, so that it will produce a crop sufficient for three years. 22When you sow in the eighth year, you will be eating some of the old crop; you shall eat the old until the ninth year, when its crop arrives.
Now we know there is not (9) years just as we know the (8th) year is the start of the new cycle, as proven by being allowed to 'sow in the eighth year'. So the eighth year represents the first year of the new cycle. The blessing of produce on the sixth year would have lasted for three years. In a seven year cycle this means that the sixth year produce would last to feed them for that year, the seventh year, and the eighth/or first year of the next cycle. So they could have something to eat while they were waiting for that which was sown on the first/eighth day to produce.
Where I think the issue in this arises is the mention of the 'ninth' year. Which would be the second year. Which means that that which is sown is not harvested till the next year, which doesn't seem correct according to known agriculture. The sowing is done in the spring, and the harvest comes in the fall. Same year.
So my question to those who believe the yovel was not the shemitah but the year after is, how do you explain the sowing on the eighth year, which would be your yovel? Because if the sixth year they are provided a blessing to last them three years, being the sixth, shemitah, the yovel, and able to eat the old into the first year so that they have food till that which is sown is harvestable. This may sound plausible 'until' you see the text that states they are to sow on the eighth year. If the yovel was on the eighth year then it's a no-sow year. And does not work with the scripture.
With that said, I have to conclude that the yovel is the same year as the shemitah, not another (8th) year, because the text says sowing is done on the eighth year.
Now, you do realize the rabbi's have been arguing this for millenia no?