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Romans 11:26?

riverrat

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"at that time you were foreigners to the covenants of the promise...but now in Christ Jesus you have been brought near." Eph 2:12,13

Money orders only, thanks.
Exactly, Gentiles have been brought near by Christ and not by covenants of promise.

Thanks for the scripture!
 
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Interplanner

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And there's the problem Riverrat (not the form of currency!). What happened in Christ is said to be the fulfillment of and answer to being excluded from the covenants! That is exactly what he is saying and what good commentary will bear out.

He is not scoring points against the law as a method. It never was. He is saying that what they were excluded from (by Judaism) in the past, is no longer: they are now in the covenant(s) [plural]. These two sections RESOUND with this theme, and may not have any other. It is all fulfilled now, in our Lord Jesus Christ. That's true because that is what it was about all the time, from the ancient past to now. But the role or interposition of the Law confused people, Gal 3:17.
 
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Danoh

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And there's the problem Riverrat (not the form of currency!). What happened in Christ is said to be the fulfillment of and answer to being excluded from the covenants! That is exactly what he is saying and what good commentary will bear out.

He is not scoring points against the law as a method. It never was. He is saying that what they were excluded from (by Judaism) in the past, is no longer: they are now in the covenant(s) [plural]. These two sections RESOUND with this theme, and may not have any other. It is all fulfilled now, in our Lord Jesus Christ. That's true because that is what it was about all the time, from the ancient past to now. But the role or interposition of the Law confused people, Gal 3:17.

Nope - Paul is asserting what he does there - this side- of ALL Israel's promises, covenants, commonwealth having been put on hold "til the fulness of Gentiles be come in," Rom. 11:25, thus, his "them that WERE nigh."

He is talking about that "no difference" gospel which he was called to preach after Israel fell.

But, I write that for those you would confuse, not for you, for you continue to refuse to look at it anew :)
 
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riverrat

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And there's the problem Riverrat (not the form of currency!). What happened in Christ is said to be the fulfillment of and answer to being excluded from the covenants! That is exactly what he is saying and what good commentary will bear out.

He is not scoring points against the law as a method. It never was. He is saying that what they were excluded from (by Judaism) in the past, is no longer: they are now in the covenant(s) [plural]. These two sections RESOUND with this theme, and may not have any other. It is all fulfilled now, in our Lord Jesus Christ. That's true because that is what it was about all the time, from the ancient past to now. But the role or interposition of the Law confused people, Gal 3:17.
Then your commentary is bad and not good. This verse clearly says the covenants do not apply to the body of Christ.

Gal 3:17 should not confuse anybody, not even you. It clearly says the Mosiac law does not void the Abrahamic covenant. How is this confusing? Another example of you not letting scripture just speak for itself.
 
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Interplanner

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Sure they do. Why would he groan with them that they were excluded and then rejoice that they were included in Christ--included in the promises to the fathers? That is exactly what it is saying! That is what the whole stretch is about; it was so awful that the Gentiles were excluded, but now they are not--in Christ. Now anything that was for Israel is understood--it always was for all the nations, by faith. It is Judaism that replaced the worldwide promise with the confined Law. That is the original replacement theology problem.

Why don't you join the gang at 'take a shot at eph' and be the best summarizer?
 
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riverrat

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Sure they do. Why would he groan with them that they were excluded and then rejoice that they were included in Christ--included in the promises to the fathers? That is exactly what it is saying! That is what the whole stretch is about; it was so awful that the Gentiles were excluded, but now they are not--in Christ. Now anything that was for Israel is understood--it always was for all the nations, by faith. It is Judaism that replaced the worldwide promise with the confined Law. That is the original replacement theology problem.

Why don't you join the gang at 'take a shot at eph' and be the best summarizer?
Right out of your preterist commentary.

I do not read threads that you start. Waste of my time.
 
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riverrat

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does he grieve that they are excluded from all those things?
Does the scripture say that he is grieving? But I am not a mind reader like you but then again I am not highly educated like you either. Tell me more about your mind reading degrees.
 
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LittleLambofJesus

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Remember the story of Jonah on that ship and the turmoil of the sea... and how they suspected that Jonah was the reason...

What a story..

They cast him off the ship.. left him for dead no doubt...

But the story doesn't end there does it..

For OUR GOD is truly an AWESOME God..
The ship symbolized Jerusalem, Jonah symbolized Jesus' resurrection and then he symbolized Paul after being vomited up to preach to the heathen Ninevites....

http://www.christianforums.com/t6739253/
Jonah, Jesus and Paul

Rotherham] Jonah 1:
4 But Yahweh hurled a great wind against the sea,--and there arose a mighty tempest in the sea,--and the ship thought to be broken in pieces,
5 Then were the mariners afraid and made outcry every man unto his own god, and they hurled the wares which were in the ship into the sea, to lighten it of them,--but,Jonah had gone down into the hinder parts of the vessel, and had lain down and fallen into a sound sleep.
[Matt 8:23]
 
YoungLT] Matt 8:

23 And when he entered into the boat his disciples did follow him,
24 and lo, a great tempest arose in the sea, so that the boat was being covered by the waves, but He was sleeping,
25 and his disciples having come to him, awoke him, saying, `Sir, save us; we are perishing.'
26 And he saith to them, `Why are ye fearful, O ye of little faith?' Then having risen, he rebuked the winds and the sea, and there was a great calm;
[Jonah 1:4-5]



.
 
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ebedmelech

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Nope - Paul is asserting what he does there - this side- of ALL Israel's promises, covenants, commonwealth having been put on hold "til the fulness of Gentiles be come in," Rom. 11:25, thus, his "them that WERE nigh."

He is talking about that "no difference" gospel which he was called to preach after Israel fell.

But, I write that for those you would confuse, not for you, for you continue to refuse to look at it anew :)
Really??? Did you read further? Ephesians 2:11:
11 Therefore remember that formerly you, the Gentiles in the flesh, who are called “Uncircumcision” by the so-called “Circumcision,” which is performed in the flesh by human hands—

If they were "formerly Gentiles" in the flesh...what are they after coming to Christ?

Then Paul says of Christians in Philippians 3:2, 3:
2 Beware of the dogs, beware of the evil workers, beware of the false circumcision;
3 for we are the true circumcision, who worship in the Spirit of God and glory in Christ Jesus and put no confidence in the flesh,


Do you know when Paul says "true circumcision" he is saysing we Christians are the "TRUE JEWS"...of course that is from a spiritual perspective...and it goes right along with what Paul said in Romans 2:28, 29:
28 For he is not a Jew who is one outwardly, nor is circumcision that which is outward in the flesh.
29 But he is a Jew who is one inwardly; and circumcision is that which is of the heart, by the Spirit, not by the letter; and his praise is not from men, but from God.


To argue that Paul is not saying believers becomes "spiritual Jews" through salvation...is to flat deny the text.

He goes on in Romans 3 & 4 to make that point using Abraham!
 
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