This is the sin of those in Romans one:
1-Refused to acknowledge God
2-Refused to glorify God
3-Were not thankful towards God
4-Exchanged God for false gods (idols)
5-Were not accepting of God and His love
6-Did not like to be God conscious
Because of these things, it would seem that, according to some, God caused these people to do what they were doing. On the contrary, these people had made up in their minds that they were going to be this way towards God the Creator. Having already established this mindset, these people conjured up imaginations as to what God was really like. Denying the true God, they created images or idols to benefit them. That God 'gave them up' is not implying that He was the cause of their doings because they refused Him. 'Gave them up' is a phrase that means God yielded to them to do what their hearts had already decided to do after and during God's attempts to reconcile them to Him. The scriptures are clear on all of the pagan idol worship that went on and Paul was privy to it. If you have a friend who was doing something harmful to themselves and you tried to help them out and they seemed to ignore you, you would 'give them up' at some point. That is, you would yield to them and allow them to do what they willed and suffer the consequences later. Or better yet, if a parent had an 18+ old child and they no longer listened to them in regards to their own life, the parent would likely 'yield' to them to live their life as they wanted to. God loved them, but since He gave us free will, He is not going to force Himself on them or us. Love is not love when it is forced and those in romans one clearly had no intentions of developing a personal relationship with God.
If Paul had meant commited homosexual relationships, he would have said so specifically in context as well. There is nothing in the text that 100% implies commited relationships. In fact, the opposite seems true. There is no way Paul would be talking about homosexuals along with those who worshipped idols and be talking about two seperate groups of people. If he did, that would make homosexual who worship Christ and confess Christ a contradiction to Paul's theory. Paul was reminiscing in his mind of all he knew about pagan worship practices, which involved same sex practices, and he very well may have thought that anyone who engaged in such acts were idol worshippers, thus the association of the two in his letter. He obviously was not describing love in this letter. I'm sure you wouldn't describe your commited, loving relationship, if applicable, with the words used in Romans one: lustful and unclean. No mention of love is in the text. Note also that 'unclean' does not necessarily mean sin. After all, God is love and if you are of a people who deny God, then you deny love. Therefore, love is of no concern in the text. Paul speaks of those who have denied God and then he thereafter speaks of uncleaness of the bodies and then it's references to idols again. One has something to do with the other and pagan god/goddess sources seem to confirm Paul's mental flashback of such practices. The biblical references to temple prostitutes (harlots -female;sodomite -male) is scripture interpreting scripture. Look into biblical god/goddesses and see what went on in honor of idols. Ashtoreth, Molech, etc. It's there! The only thing I can say is that Paul had no clue that someone who loved God would be naturally instinctive towards the same sex. We know today because we are more advanced in information, unlike Paul's day and time. He likely thought of same sex practices one minute and immediately thought of idolatrous practices the next, associating the two.
Paul is but a man, like you and me. Surely today we know more about science, humanity, dna, genetics, etc. than he did back then. Men sleep with their wifes when the menstrual cycle is in affect, etc. (Prohibited in Leviticus). Paul likely thought all humans were heterosexual and any homosexual activity was a sign of an idolator since those who worshipped idols engaged in same sex acts (not love) for worship/gain purposes. It should also be noted that idol worshippers who conquered their enemies 'sodomized' them after battle to show their domination and to show that their god was greater than the enemy's god or God Himself. It is funny how some chrisitians take what Paul says as equal to what God thinks. Women would have to be silent in church and ask questions only of their husbands at home if that were the case! That is, if one does not consider the context Pauls says, "does not nature itself teach you that it is a shame for a man to have long hair" (paraphrase). What is that? Is it against nature or what? What does 'nature' mean there? Study Paul's other 'nature' references in the bible and define them according to Paul's language, not our (english).
It does seem to suggest that those who partake in same sex acts are such who deny God, but I attend a church with a lot of homosexual persons who worship God, praise God, and in whom God's spirit is felt. Attend one such church and decide for yourself which is true: The assumption that a homosexual is such due to his/her denial of God or God is punishing them for their denial and the punishment is the state they are in OR that Paul, though a man of God, is limited in his humanity as we all are. "Nature" and "natural" are terms used to describe that which is naturally instinctive, in the context. Either Paul thinks all humans are naturally instinctive towards opposite sex relationships or he is unaware that what is natural for one is not necessarily a shared instinct by others. This is one example of what we know today and what he may not have known then. Also, consider Paul's usage of 'nature' in other bible texts. He says God acted contrary to nature when He grafted the Gentiles in with the Jews (Romans 11:24). Did God act in an immoral way if 'against nature' is a moral phrase?
In Christ,
leecappella