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AMEN!!Lollard said:[/indent]It does not say this in this verse.
Let me try and correct this misinformation. We can conclude from reading the rest of the new Testament that concerns the issue of Jesus being sinless, that indeed He was sinless.
1 Peter 2:22 "Who did no sin, neither was guile found in his mouth."
1 John 3:5 "And ye know that he was manifested to take away our sins; and in him is no sin."
Hebrews 4:15 "For we have not an High Priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin."
2 Corinthians 5:21 "For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew not sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him."
It is your contention that we can gleen from the scriptures the same thing about Mary? Sorry but not without gymnastics, and assumptions. It is not stated anywhere in the Bible that Mary was sinless. Nowhere.
Let's not. Do not try and compare the Lord with Mary. That is ridiculous. There is no comparison. Jesus was man but He was also God. Mary was a woman and nothing else. By His nature He was sinless. Mary by her nature she was not.
I was correct at what you were not saying? There are plenty of other differences by the way that do come from His being God. He is omnipotent. Mary isn't. He is omnipresent. Mary isn't. He is the lamb. Mary isn't. He was there before the creation of the world. Mary isn't. etc...
They weren't sinless, He was. The reason He was is because He is Holy, He is God. There could be no sin in Him otherwise He would not be Holy, or in effect be God.
Sure it is. He was man in the flesh. He faced the same temptations but He could not possibly sin. He did not have the ability.
Okay here is where the gymnastics come in. She WAS saved, but it happend on the cross at the same time it happend for us. God did not promise her nor did He give to her redemption before the actual event took place. This is just allegorical and unfounded thinking.
Oh please not this example... I listen to Catholic Answers from time to time I have heard this all before. The example proves nothing. It is an attempt to try and make reasonable or plausable the possibilty, of nonbiblical teachings without addressing the main point that this dogma is neither necessary nor Biblical.
Pure conjecture. Marys' salvation came when Jesus died and rose again on the third day. The same with all believers. The Bible does not say any different.
Extrabiblical examples do not make it the truth either. The logic goes both ways, should you hear the truth and do not accept it. Just as coming up with examples to try and make them seem reasonable is not proof that what you are saying is the truth. I have yet to se any scriptural support for mary being sinless. None.
Because there was a church teaching about it, does not make it right. Please don't even try to drag this into then how can you trust the Bible angle (the same church that gave you this gave you that).
The difference being that we can see clearly from the scriptures that this is so. We cannot see without adding our own opinions of what happend believe that Mary was anything more than what the Bible presented her to be.
Anyway I am off for a few days so you all enjoy your weekend.
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