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T

thelasttrumpet

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I disagree with your opinion about my “entire hermeneutic.” I could very well say the same thing about your own.




I do not disagree with this.




Once, the body is dead the soul cannot repent (Heb. 9:27). Judgment follows immediately. Thus, here a bodily death may be seen in bring forth an eternal death – as there is no repentance after physical death.

Can you prove from the context that the author of Hebrews even has physical death in view here?



Note what the text says, “the LORD will destroy” (compare to Matt. 10:28). Far from disproving my case – you made it! God destroys not only temporarily, but continually and eternally.



I have not “made your case,” because this was a temporal judgment, and has nothing to do with anyone’s post-mortem destiny. You can’t prove otherwise.







When I said that the expression “soul and body” doesn’t “refer to people on an individual basis,” I thought I was clear that this meant no one individual’s “soul and body” is being referred to by Jesus (no more than the “soul and body” of any one particular tree is being referred to in Isaiah 10). It’s a proverbial expression. Neither Isaiah nor Christ are to be understood literally here. Christ is using the same expression used by Isaiah to refer to a national judgment against Israel. Neither Christ nor Isaiah has anyone’s post-mortem destiny in view.


I have hardly proven your case. If they’re completely destroyed, then they’re dead. Again, you have no proof that there is any part of man that survives death (that’s why the doctrine of the resurrection is so significant).


Christ is speaking of individuals only so far as they make up the nation of Israel. This was a national judgment, in this world. See Jeremiah 19. No post-mortem punishment here.


Jonathan Edwards may have produced tormenting terror in the hearts of people, and converted multitudes to his unscriptural belief in endless, post-mortem punishment, but I deny that he ever reconciled anyone to God by preaching any such unscriptural sermons.


I have no problem quoting this verse. What proof do you have that this condemnation pertains to any existence other than this one? What proof do you have that this condemnation extends beyond this temporal world? None at all.


Jesus never once used the word “hell.” You’re putting uninspired words into his mouth. He said “Gehenna,” which we know from Jeremiah 19 was emblematic of a national judgment against Israel.


Neither aionion punishment nor aionion judgment means endless, post-mortem torment, and you have no proof to the contrary.


I’ve never read any of Fudge’s works, I’m not fudging on Scripture, and I’ve already embraced the Father.


God bless,
Aaron
 
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